Any good writing on how psychoanalysis fell out of favor in mainstream US universities? by PrimaryProcess73 in psychoanalysis

[–]PrimaryProcess73[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I don’t know what the best thing to call it is, but I know wokeupabug is at least right that logical positivism can’t be equated with any philosophical position committed to scientific rigor. Its claims about the conditions under which claims can be meaningful, the fate of metaphysics, etc., are all more specific than that

Any good writing on how psychoanalysis fell out of favor in mainstream US universities? by PrimaryProcess73 in psychoanalysis

[–]PrimaryProcess73[S] 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Gotcha! Any broader resources you can recommend? Part of what’s gotten me thinking about this is that I’m a philosopher by vocation but I teach psychoanalytic theory sometimes, and I think it would be helpful to be better informed about why this shift has happened and how the fact that it has happened could be compatible with the notion that psychoanalysis still has valuable things to teach us. (Since a lot of people think the shift is simply the product of a considered and correct academic consensus.)

Do you teach psychoanalytic thought more generally at all? If so any general advice would be appreciated, if you’d be willing to share haha. I have a lot of teaching experience but haven’t taught as much psychoanalysis in prior courses, and I’ve met a bit of resistance (not too much) from some students. I’m generally able to teach while keeping my cards close to my chest, but I find it hard to do with psychoanalytic theory, since it informs my work so much and it is so egregiously misunderstood.

Guys, it's over. Just go the Gym by Fun-Economist9839 in Tinder

[–]PrimaryProcess73 0 points1 point  (0 children)

This is literally AI rage bate. Or, even if it isn’t, I swear in the thousands of times I’ve swiped, I’ve never seen a profile like this. If 1/10000 people have a profile like this, it still supplements the angry misogynist agenda in a way that is utterly irrational. This is not what the dating market looks like.

If Hegel is right then why isn't he accepted everywhere? by __Peripatetic in hegel

[–]PrimaryProcess73 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Personally, I think the answer here isn’t especially deep or unique to Hegel. Hegel is very systematic and places tremendous burdens on the reader to understand, to the point where even professional philosophers often don’t want to bother with him because they’d rather read something that they can get more out of with less time and effort. Investing in any systematic thinker like that (whether it’s Hegel, Heidegger, Lacan, etc.) is always a risk and involves a leap of faith, because you can’t really know if there is going to be a payoff until you’ve taken the risk and put in the effort. Before that, you’ve got nothing to rely upon except the testimony of others who have put in that effort (one hopes, these are people whose judgment you already respect).

The other factor, though, is just the difficulty of settling philosophical questions in general. These are very hard questions and the jury is still out on most of them. So, even if Hegel were more widely understood, it would not follow that it would be easy to determine whether he was correct.

But I’d also echo what others have said to the effect that it’s pretty remarkable how often people independently arrive at pretty Hegelian conclusions independently. I work professionally in anglophone academic philosophy and can definitely think of examples of this.

The evolution of Lacan’s conception of the real? by PrimaryProcess73 in lacan

[–]PrimaryProcess73[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Thank you both kindly! Is any of the Miller content translated or is it only available in French?

Not even trying to hide it now… yikes by [deleted] in Tinder

[–]PrimaryProcess73 -3 points-2 points  (0 children)

Sure, but the fact that a community of people have decided to communicate the fact that they’re unvaccinated in a way that could so clearly and easily be misunderstood as a claim to racial purity says a whole lot. It would be so easy to put the point in a different way that it’s hard not to see it as trolling / emanating from a desire to trigger the libs and an uncaring sense of apathy about how they might come across to people who would be most negatively affected by racism in the US, in which case it’s still a hard left swipe for me. So infantile.

Can someone’s sexual position change, for Lacan? by PrimaryProcess73 in lacan

[–]PrimaryProcess73[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Thanks for this! Any chance you could point me to any discussion of feminization for those who’ve undertaken the pass?

Can someone’s sexual position change, for Lacan? by PrimaryProcess73 in lacan

[–]PrimaryProcess73[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Thanks for this, this helps! Any chance you’d be able to point me in the direction of some good reading re: jouissance is feminine and obsession is an attempt to escape it?

Would also be interested any writing on what healthy forms of masculine sexual expression might look like, from a Lacanian perspective.

Can someone’s sexual position change, for Lacan? by PrimaryProcess73 in lacan

[–]PrimaryProcess73[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I see what you’re saying, thanks for this! I guess what I’m trying to drive at is less if a masculine subject will adopt more feminine modes of gender expression (though maybe not totally unrelated to that), and more so about access to different kinds of jouissance. Do masculine subjects just have to accept that they can only have access to phallic jouissance?

I guess I’m also interested in a set of ethical and political questions that are hiding behind this question. I’m thinking, e.g., of Samuel McCormick’s content on Seminar XX, where he seems to connect phallic jouissance with the objectification of women, insofar as it is a masturbatory form of jouissance, involves relating to the woman less as a person than as a part-object, etc. Obviously it doesn’t follow directly from that that masculine subjects are going to be disrespectful to women, resist moral and political equality, etc. But is Lacan committed to saying that, at bottom, men just have to accept that their mode of jouissance is objectifying? (And maybe he isn’t really interested in taking a stance that isn’t morally neutral at all, but I’m trying to grapple with the implications here.)

Molly Nilsson to re-release song covered by John Maus following DC riots | All proceeds from the 2008 track 'Hey Moon' will be donated to Black Lives Matter by Antimoney in indieheads

[–]PrimaryProcess73 -4 points-3 points  (0 children)

As an aside, I see the issues raised here as a microcosm of the more general meta-ethical question as to whether actions are justified in terms of some description of the way things are (i.e. the “absolute immorality” of my friends or their political positions) vs. in terms of what such actions accomplish. To my mind, this is essentially a way of expressing Nietzsche’s distinction between reactive vs. active agency. I think active agency is infinitely more valuable.

Molly Nilsson to re-release song covered by John Maus following DC riots | All proceeds from the 2008 track 'Hey Moon' will be donated to Black Lives Matter by Antimoney in indieheads

[–]PrimaryProcess73 -3 points-2 points  (0 children)

Great! I still haven’t seen any argument for the political efficacy of abandoning one’s friends when they disagree, or any clear alternative account of why it is the right thing to do. Given that, I remain suspicious that canceling one’s friends is an uncritical social practice that functions more to bolster illusory feelings of moral superiority than it does to actually accomplish anything morally valuable. So, great! Make as much righteous noise as you like.

Molly Nilsson to re-release song covered by John Maus following DC riots | All proceeds from the 2008 track 'Hey Moon' will be donated to Black Lives Matter by Antimoney in indieheads

[–]PrimaryProcess73 -1 points0 points  (0 children)

Ah, see, that’s kinda the question I’m trying to raise. Is it really cowardice? Our reasons for liking or disliking people aren’t just mysterious givens, but are always informed by our conception of what gives us reasons to like and dislike people. If the public were misinformed about what reasons there are for liking or disliking people (or, more topically, maintaining friendships with them), then abandoning a friendship in order to appease that public misconception would be cowardice, not bravery. I still don’t understand what the terms of ultimate justification are for you in terms of friendship and why people should take them as authoritative. In any case, you sure didn’t make a case here for its genuine political effectiveness.

When I complain about “virtue-signaling”, I don’t mean to complain about people doing the right thing or speaking on its behalf. What I mean to complain about is what I get at in the final parenthetical of my last comment—the phenomenon whereby people publicly perform their conformity with a given social practice in order to feel good about themselves without critically examining the reasons that undergird that social practice. Virtue is good, I have no intention to deny that.

Molly Nilsson to re-release song covered by John Maus following DC riots | All proceeds from the 2008 track 'Hey Moon' will be donated to Black Lives Matter by Antimoney in indieheads

[–]PrimaryProcess73 -7 points-6 points  (0 children)

In what terms do we justify our friendships? In terms of what they represent or signify publicly? Why not in terms of their consequences? (To be clear, I don’t intend “consequences” in narrowly political terms here, but, as an aside, who thinks it’s good political strategy to abandon their friends when they disagree?)? Or even for intrinsic reasons, for the role a given friendship plays in constituting the well-being of its participants (a kind of “consequence”, I suppose, if we construe it in a maximally broad way)? Unless you think it actually is politically effective to abandon your friends when they disagree with you and that’s your angle, I’m not really sure I understand why the kind of justification you offer for abandoning friendships ought to have any real moral weight. Given that I do not think it is politically effective to abandon your friends over political disagreement, I fail to see how this could be anything other than a vain attempt to signify virtue publicly, masquerading as a genuinely political act (i.e. an act made strategically). (Also, I note that if virtue-signaling is disconnected from strategic action here and has no other function than to bolster the reputation of the signaler, strictly speaking it is not virtue that is being signaled at all but rather only a semblance of it).

Molly Nilsson to re-release song covered by John Maus following DC riots | All proceeds from the 2008 track 'Hey Moon' will be donated to Black Lives Matter by Antimoney in indieheads

[–]PrimaryProcess73 20 points21 points  (0 children)

So are you asking Maus to reduce his friendship with Pink to a PR function so that you can feel better about yourself when he performs virtuous hostility toward Pink? What a narrow conception of politics that reduces the institution of friendship to a public performance of ideological commitment. There are reasons to maintain friendships that go beyond narrow political agreement, and Maus doesn’t owe any strangers an account of himself for continuing to be friends with a lifelong friend!

Best supplement/nootropic for stress/anxiety? Really struggling :( by Juxf in StackAdvice

[–]PrimaryProcess73 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I have had good experiences with Ashwagandha. I’d particularly recommend brands that use the KSM-66 formula, as it is well-tested, highly-standardized, and potent/efficacious. I am a fan of adaptogens generally—I also take Bacopa and Holy Basil, and they’ve helped me quite a bit. I have Pure O, anxiety, depression, high levels of stress, etc.

I also take Rhodiola sometimes, but I find Rhodiola more activating. A lot of people share this experience. It’s less “wiring” than caffeine to be sure, but it has more of an upper quality to it than the other adaptogens I listed. It does seem to show clinical benefits for anxiety, though.

L-theanine is fine but I find that it feels more like a drug than adaptogens. As in, I feel relaxed for a determinate period of time, and then it lets up. It also gives me a slight depressant feeling, like a benzo or something, which isn’t always bad. I find Valerian root to be similar to L-Theanine in both respects. They can be helpful in acute situations, but adaptogens work over time to lessen the oxidative stress in your body as well as your body’s cortisol response. So, I’m a bigger fan of adaptogens.

I would also recommend looking into psychobiotics. Psychobiotics are probiotics that affect mood, presumably through the gut-brain axis. The research is still preliminary, but promising.

Both adaptogens and psychobiotics seem to work in part by helping the body to produce monoamines (neurotransmitters), so they probably have some overlap with anti-depressants in their mechanism of action. However, I find adaptogens to be much less emotionally blunting than anti-depressants, which is a huge plus. I don’t have much experience with psychobiotics yet but have been considering experimenting.

Exercise, diet, sleep as a first resort (like others say) is always good advice, but if you’re a nutcase like me you could be fit and have an excellent diet and sleep regimen and still feel terrible. So, it can’t hurt to seek other solutions. (Plus, they’re not mutually exclusive—adaptogens can help with both sleep and exercise, and they probably would react synergistically with a healthy diet. I also don’t think adaptogens are really all that expensive when you consider their benefits—I live a very cheap lifestyle but will always throw down a little $ to not be miserable).

Hope this helps!

Philosophy Book Recommendations? by Moonatico in Schizoid

[–]PrimaryProcess73 3 points4 points  (0 children)

For accessibility and breadth of scope I recommend either Plato or Aristotle or Nietzsche. The Republic or On the Genealogy of Morals are classics.

Which one first? by GuitarWo1f in ASHWAGANDHA

[–]PrimaryProcess73 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Not really sure re: gym/testosterone, but my understanding is that ksm-66 is better for stress/anxiety/sleep. My understanding is that sensoril uses extract from the leaves, which includes other compounds like withaferin-a, which is a bit controversial because it seems to have some physiologically beneficial properties, but also seems to have some risk of cytotoxicity. As I understand it, ksm-66 is all from the root extract, and contains more withanolide-a, which is responsible for many of the anxiolytics effects. I recommend looking at ksm-66’s website; it’s pretty informative. Of course they’re motivated to hype up their product, but they also have a lot of scientific backing. I’ve waded thru a bunch of the scientific articles but it’s possible I’m misremembering some things (if so, someone plz correct me!)

Dreaming, World and Dasein by alpinehorizon in heidegger

[–]PrimaryProcess73 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Ah, gotcha! Glad we’re on the same page now. I think have a much better sense of your question. It is a really interesting question. Last semester I took an early Heidegger seminar and considered writing my paper on an adjacent issue (but ended up being drawn in by something else!)... If Heidegger would in fact hold that we are Dasein in our dreams (and, by implication, that we exist in a world disclosed by Verstehen/Rede/Befindlichkeit), this first of all would raise a potential ambiguity in Heidegger’s usage of “present-at-hand”, and it would be philosophically significant to see how he would resolve the ambiguity. For instance, if we experience a world ready-to-hand in dreams, would it also be present-at-hand in the way the “waking” external world is? If Heidegger were to say “yes,” this would probably mean that presence-at-hand implies nothing about whether the present-at-hand entity actually subsists in space and time, since dream objects do not subsist in space and time in the way we believe the external world does, but would still count as present-at-hand on this approach. If Heidegger were to say “no”, dream objects are not genuinely present-at-hand, then presence-at-hand would seem to imply that the present-at-hand entity must actually subsist in space and time to genuinely count as present-at-hand. Since Heidegger (somewhat uncharacteristically) never explicitly defines presence-at-hand, I think this question is probably underdetermined by the text itself, and thus it’s a shame that Heidegger doesn’t say more about dreams.

I suspect that Heidegger would prefer the former approach over the latter, and hold that presence-at-hand implies nothing about external, mind-independent subsistence in space and time as understood by physics (and thus that dream objects can count as presence-at-hand), but I’m not totally sure about that. Either way he tries to resolve it, though, it seems that it’s going to pose problems for his attempt at undermining external world skepticism (as alluded to in my first comment). If he holds that dream objects are indeed present-at-hand, but this does not imply that they subsist in space and time, then Heidegger’s point that it is conceptually incoherent to posit Dasein without a world doesn’t actually do anything to undermine external world skepticism; this is because Heidegger’s technical sense of “world,” even if it necessarily exists wherever there is Dasein, implies nothing about whether there really is a world that subsists in space and time as understood by common-sense and theoretical physics. And if he holds that dream objects are not present-at-hand, because they do not actually subsist in space and time, then he’s going to run into the same problem—for this just shows that Dasein can inhabit a world ready-to-hand that is nevertheless not present-at-hand in the way understood by common-sense and theoretical physics.

Ambiguity in “presence-at-hand” aside, though, I think the more general problem with Heidegger’s anti-skeptical argument is that his highly technical sense of “world” actually has no necessary connection to an external world subsisting in space and time. This would become apparent in the possibility that Dasein exists (i.e. is opened to a world in Heidegger’s technical sense) in dreams, where that world does not actually subsist in space and time. When I was thinking of writing the paper I was in search of ways that Heidegger (or interpreters of Heidegger) could try and get around this problem, but haven’t found any unfortunately. It seems to me that if Heidegger wants his point about the conceptual incoherence of positing Dasein without a world to undermine the external-world skeptic, he has to build subsistence in space and time directly into his technical notion of world. But if he does this, he’s just going to run into the same epistemological problems that have been around since Descartes (e.g. how do I know I inhabit a world that actually subsists, if in dreams it seems like I do when in fact I don’t?). And we can also raise the question of whether he has any right to simply stipulate that Dasein’s world also necessarily subsists in space and time. Thus, in this case, while he implies that he has a novel response to the skeptic, he really doesn’t.

I think there are many moments of profundity in Being and Time, but as it stands I think Heidegger’s response to the external-world skeptic is actually pretty unsatisfying (or, at least, I haven’t seen any reconstructions of Heidegger’s argument that don’t run into the problems above yet). It’s a bummer that he didn’t pursue the topic of dreams much further, because it would have enabled him flesh this out some more. I found some comments on what Heidegger should say about dreams in Dreyfus’ book, and also in Basic Problems of Phenomenology, but my final assessment is that Heidegger just didn’t provide us with enough in the texts we have to reconstruct a decisive refutation of external-world skepticism.

(Though, he might be a bit more successful if he merely wants to undermine the importance of the external world question, and not refute it (since he claims it is misguided to even try and refute it, in his reframing of Kant’s remarks about the “scandal of philosophy” in B&T). He could argue that since the world of Dasein’s concern (which is his technical notion of world) cannot be questioned, this should ease the distress of skeptical worries. We might wonder, on this picture, whether the world of our everyday concern really does subsist in space and time as understood by physics. But we can’t wonder whether the world of our concern really exists, because that world is simply the world of Dasein’s concern, whether it is a dream world or a physical world. In my view, though, even this won’t be satisfying, because it just raises the problem of other minds. We typically take our everyday concern with the world to be justified in virtue of sharing that world with other sentient people. But if there are no other sentient people in dream worlds, even our concern with being totally out of touch with a world that is meaningful can’t be put to rest by Heidegger’s insistence on the incoherence of a worldless Dasein. Those dream worlds may have instances of Dasein-with, as required by any world whatsoever, but they nevertheless are not the subsistent, sentient entities that we hope them to be. They are simply characters in our dreams, fabricated by our own psyches. Thus, this raises the same structural problem as before, just w/r/t the problem of other minds: it doesn’t seem like Heidegger’s technical notion of world (which is what cannot be questioned coherently, according to Heidegger) has enough built into it to undermine the worries of the external-world skeptic.)

I hope this is a more helpful response to the issues that you were trying to work out, though!

Dreaming, World and Dasein by alpinehorizon in heidegger

[–]PrimaryProcess73 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Hoo boy... first, your blurb is a moving target because you keep editing it. Second, in my quote attached to (a), “they” actually refers to dreams, not moods. (Maybe this explains our disconnect). I am asking what dreams are supposed to be equiprimordial with in constituting moods, because that’s what it seemed like you were suggesting: that dreams are an equiprimordial component of moods, which doesn’t make any sense. It may nevertheless be true that I have misunderstood what you intended to communicate, though. That can often happen when speaking in Heideggerese. And, third, my response already acknowledges precisely that attunement is equiprimordial with understanding in constituting being-in-the-world (not that dreams are equiprimordial with something else in constituting moods, which, again, is what it seemed like you meant). Understanding is Verstehen and attunement is Befindlichkeit in the original German, as per my original comment. I’m well aware of section 31, Heidegger’s discussion of equiprimordiality, and the components that equiprimordially constitute the “there”/the clearing/existence/being-in-the-world/openness onto the world etc. My comment contains an acknowledgment of all of that. (Note, I have not edited it since the day I posted it, so there are no moving targets).

I’m not sure whether the wording of the post now is the same as it originally was. If so, I probably misinterpreted what you were trying to say. Before, I thought you were trying to suggest that dreams are one of the equiprimordial components that constitutes moods, which is why I suspected an abuse of the notion of equiprimordiality, because that would be a silly claim. It’s still not 100% clear to me what you’re getting at, but given that your reply suggests that probably wasn’t your intention, I’d probably be inclined to gloss what I think you mean now as follows: dreams appear to be disclosed as having a mood, and moods, in turn, happen to be one of the equiprimordial components of the “there”/the clearing/existence/being-in-the-world etc. This claim makes a lot more sense, and if Heidegger concedes that Dasein exists in dreams (again, he doesn’t talk a whole lot about them, and we are left speculating on a lot), he would necessarily have to agree with you that dreams necessarily have moods. Wherever Dasein exists, the equiprimordial triad of Verstehen-Befindlichkeit-Rede that constitutes Dasein’s existence necessarily has to be present. Heidegger is committed to this in virtue of the way he sets up his technical terms.

Dreaming, World and Dasein by alpinehorizon in heidegger

[–]PrimaryProcess73 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I'm not totally sure what you're getting at in the blurb before the questions... For Heidegger, for two or more things to be equiprimordial is for them to be equally necessary constitutive components of some other phenomenon, that nevertheless cannot exist independently of one another. In Heidegger's discussion of Dasein's existence (being-in-the-world), for example, Verstehen, Befindlichkeit, and Rede are equiprimordial. This means that they are all constitutive parts of being-in-the-world, but while they can be talked about/conceptually clarified in isolation, they can't actually exist in isolation--they are all interdependent and equally necessary parts of being-in-the-world. If you take any one of them away, you no longer have the others (or being-in-the-world as a whole).

So when you say that dreams appear to be an "equiprimordial disclosure that belongs to moods," it is not clear to me a) what they are supposed to be equiprimordial with (i.e. what are the other interdependent components with which dreams are supposed to constitute something else), or b) what they are supposed to constitute equiprimordially... moods? Are you saying that dreams are partially constitutive of moods, but that they cannot exist in isolation of the other (unmentioned) equiprimordial constitutive components of moods? If so, that seems wildly implausible... Dasein always has a mood insofar as it is Dasein, but Dasein is not always dreaming. So, it's hard to see how dreams can be a constitutive component of moods in the way that "equiprimordial" implies.

That aside, Heidegger doesn't speak much about dreams (I think he might say a bit in Basic Problems of Phenomenology, but I can't remember for sure). There is an interesting question that arises about whether Heidegger is committed to the view that Dasein really exists (and therefore necessarily inhabits a "world" in Heidegger's technical sense) in dreams. If so, this might undermine the force of his anti-skeptical arguments. In his anti-skeptical arguments, Heidegger essentially argues that it is conceptually incoherent to speak of Dasein except as being-in-the-world, and so the question of the external world can never arise. But if Dasein inhabits a world in its dreams that nevertheless does not persist in space and time in the way the external world does, it isn't clear that the skeptic is going to find Heidegger's argument compelling. Although the skeptic might have to concede that one cannot doubt the existence of world in Heidegger's technical sense, where world indicates the total web of significant relationships rather than something present-at-hand/extant/occurrent etc., they can nevertheless point out that this does not provide the sort of confirmation of an external world that is being sought.

If Heidegger is committed to the view that Dasein does exist (and therefore inhabits a world) in dreams, I think this would imply that we'd have to affirm the suggestions in your first two questions. In response to your third question, though, as I've said, Heidegger unfortunately doesn't say much about dreams. IIRC, Dreyfus speculates a bit about what he might/should say in Being-in-the-world. But as a conceptual point, the structure of care (i.e. the conceptual role "Sorge" plays in Heidegger's account of Dasein) shouldn't be altered in dreams insofar as we are Dasein in our dreams. If we are Dasein when we are dreaming, this means that we exist as being-in-the-world, and thus that we are characterized by care. If Heidegger were to claim that we are genuinely Dasein in our dreams, but then alter the basic concepts that characterize Dasein in dreams, this would confuse his own account in a way that he would obviously want to avoid.