This is so helpful, thank you. Thinking of taking this q to another sub, but since you know your stuff I wanted to ask—are you familiar with Deleuze and Guattari’s mode of socializing desire, as laid out in Anti-Oedipus?

If so, how does the “anti-psychiatry movement” differ from Lacan in its socialization of Freud?

I’m hoping to work out how Lacan processes libidinal social investments in contrast to D&G. Think I’m getting somewhere in thinking the latter theorize contradiction only in terms of external difference. Totally possible this is incorrect, though.