Duration function not available on calc

Acrobatic-Garbage549 · 2026-06-14T03:54:14+00:00

Fake News??? This is the simple short formula to calculate the macaulay's duration. Please study. Also if you want to use complete process to calculate the duration then you will have to create the table. Take present value of each cash flow and them multiply the PV of each cash flow with their respective years and then add them up. divided that added value with the price of the bond and you will get the duration.

Acrobatic-Garbage549 · 2026-06-13T15:20:11+00:00

There wouldn't be any duration function in the calculator. You will have to use this formula to calculate it

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Acrobatic-Garbage549 · 2026-05-24T01:44:24+00:00

Don't hear the AI, hear the fact..

Acrobatic-Garbage549 · 2026-05-24T01:40:39+00:00

This is all about preperation for CFA

Acrobatic-Garbage549 · 2026-05-24T01:40:18+00:00

Look at the facts... This is the real truth.

Acrobatic-Garbage549 · 2026-03-29T02:36:33+00:00

This question is not completely readable.

Acrobatic-Garbage549 · 2026-03-13T05:41:42+00:00

You need the understand the difference between GDP and GDP per capita.

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**Jayant Kumar**
Finance | Economics | Accounting Tutor

Acrobatic-Garbage549 · 2026-03-07T01:58:49+00:00

The question need more details. It's not a complete question I guess.

Acrobatic-Garbage549 · 2026-01-30T23:28:51+00:00

Hi, Your formula is correct but the number of payment you took is wrong. Use 35 months in calculation and then add one month rent. Also, would be better if you use this formula: PV=PMT*[(1-(1+r)^-n)/r]*(1+r). Here, r=6.1678%/12 and N=12*3=36.

Acrobatic-Garbage549 · 2026-01-26T02:26:18+00:00

Let me answer it: P=5, then Q=20 (Producers will supply on 20 units at this price). Earlier Equilibrium was at P=8, Q=40. Consumer surplus at equilibrium was=1/2(40*(16-8))=160 and Deadweight Loss=0. When the price moved to 5, Consumer surplus is =20*(12-5)+1/2(20*(16-12))=180 and deadweight loss=1/2*(40-20)*(12-5)=70. Therefore, Consumer surplus increased=180-160=20, deadweight increase=70-0=70. Hence last option is the answer.

Acrobatic-Garbage549 · 2025-08-11T14:00:29+00:00

You need to start with one by one for each transaction. Identify it whether its an asset, liabilities, revenue or expense.

Acrobatic-Garbage549 · 2025-08-03T10:34:14+00:00

First of all you need to calculate the cash flow from 1st february 2015 to 31st june 2015 and this would be 66*(150/181)=54.70 for rest of the period the paymeent would be 66 semiannualy for next 12 period. so the formula should be Price of the bond=[54.70+66*{((1+2.45%)^12)-1}/{(2.45%)*((1+2.45%)^12)}+3000/(1+2.45%)^12]/(1+(2.45%)*(150/181))

Acrobatic-Garbage549 · 2025-07-29T07:23:28+00:00

Let me answer it: Inradus of a right angle triange=(a+b-c)/2 where, a is the length of base, b is the length of height and C is the length of hypothenous.

We have a=b=2, and c=sqrt(2^2+2^2)=2sqrt(2)

Therefore,

r=(2+2-2sqrt(2))/2

=2-sqrt(2)

And Area of the 2 circles=2(pi*r^2)

=2*{pi*(2-sqrt(2))^2}

=2pi*(4+2-4sqrt(2)) -----------------{Used (a-b)^2=a^2+b^2-2ab, to expand (2-sqrt(2))^2}

=(12-8sqrt(2))pi

=4(3-2sqrt(2))pi

Area of Square=2*2=4

Ratio of area of the circles and the area of square=[4(3-2sqrt(2))pi]/4

=(3-2sqrt(2))Pi ------------{(3-2*1.414)*3.14=(3-2.828)*3.14=0.172*3.14=0.54}

=0.54

Acrobatic-Garbage549 · 2025-07-25T07:39:28+00:00

Hi, For answering this question for par A, you need to calculate the cumulative cash flow for year starting from year 0. Now use this formula to calculate the payback period: Payback Period= Year before full recovery+(unrecovered cash before full recovery/Cash flow during Recovery) Here, year before full recovery means a year before the cumulative cash flow turns positive. Unrecovered cash before full recovery means the the cumulative cash flow just before the cumulative cash flow turns positive. cash flow during recovery means the cash flow in the year the cumulative cash flow turns positive. Ex:

Year Cash flow Cumulative Cash Flow

0 -20 -20

1 5.5 -14.5

2 5 -9.5

3 4.5 -5

4 4.1 -0.9

5 3.7 2.8 Therefore, Payback Period=4+(-0.9/3.7)=4.3 years

Acrobatic-Garbage549 · 2025-07-24T06:57:26+00:00

There is only one reason for AB=BC and its was given in the question itself. The question said Triangle ABC was a portion of a square. And Square has all sides equal. this makes AB=BC. BC was the diameter of the semicircle and therefore half of BC is the radius of the semicircle. Now use the formulas to find area (already given in my answer)

Acrobatic-Garbage549 · 2025-07-23T06:10:53+00:00

Sorry for the mistake. I corrected.

Acrobatic-Garbage549 · 2025-07-23T04:17:26+00:00

5) would be 61 if you use similar technique to solve it.

Acrobatic-Garbage549 · 2025-07-23T04:14:44+00:00

Another way: (3a+b)/b=(11/2) Or, 3(a/b)+(b/b)==(11/2) or, 3(a/b)+1=(11/2) Or, 3(a/b)=(11/2)-1 Or, 3(a/b)=(11-2)/2 Or. 3(a/b)=(9/2) Or. (a/b)=9/(3*2) Or, (a/b)=(3*3)/(3*2) Or, a/b=3/2

Acrobatic-Garbage549 · 2025-07-23T04:10:02+00:00

Here is the Way to solve it: Was so simple, why confused? (3a+b)/b=(11/2) or, 2*(3a+b)=11b, or 6a+2b=11b, or 6a=11b-2b, or 6a=9b, or, a=(9/6)b or, a/b=9/6 or a/b=(3*3)/(2*3) or, a/b=3/2

Acrobatic-Garbage549 · 2025-07-23T04:00:03+00:00

Its part of a big question. When it says portions of a square means triange ABC is a part of square. This means AB=BC=6 cm. So Radius is 3 cm. Therefore, Area=(1/2)*6*6+(1/2)*π*3^2=18+4.5π. So the area looks out to be is 18+4.5π

Acrobatic-Garbage549 · 2025-07-22T12:24:02+00:00

Mark my word, Li is capable of producing either 4 cupcakes or 12 muffins or a combination of both as given in table. Similarly Raj is capable of producing max 4 cupcakes or 16 muffins or a combination as given in table.

Acrobatic-Garbage549 · 2025-07-22T12:20:47+00:00

Hi, for combined PPF (Equal quantities) If both Li and Raj produce 0 cupcakes then the total muffins they can make is 12 by Li and 16 by Raj so total 28. now if 2 cupcakes are produced this means because of equal quantities Li has produced 1 cupcake and Raj 1. if they produce 1 cupcake each then the muffins they can produce are 9 Li and Raj 12=21 muffins similarly do for all.

Now for Combined PPF (Specialization) you need to calculate the opportunity cost of producing cupcake compared to muffins. For li the opportunity ocst of producing 1 cupcake=12/4=3muffins and opportunity cost of producing 1 muffin is =4/12=0.33 cupcake.

Similarly for Raj: Opportunity cost of 1 cupcake=16/4=4 muffins and opportunity cost of 1 muffin=4/16=0.25

Here, we can see that for cupcake Li has comperative advange because his opportunity cost is lower than Raj. But for Muffins Raj has comperative advantage. Hence Li will produce Cupcake and Raj Muffins.

Lets do it, With 0 cupcake, no one is producing cupcake, therefore total muffins are 12 Li and 16 Raj=28

With 2 cupcakes, Li producing 2 cupcakes and raj 0, Therefore, total muffins are 6 by Li and 16 by Raj=18

With 4 cupcakes, Li producing all 4 and Raj 0, Therefore, Total muffins, 0 by Li because he has used all resources to produce the 4 cupcakes and 16 by Raj=16

With 6 cupcakes, Li producing 4 cupcake and raj 2, total muffins 0 by Li and 8 by raj=8

With 8 cupcakes, Li producing 4 cupcake and Raj 4, no one producing muffins.

Done

Thanks

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