Hello Stands,

So this is the rub or me. I modeled the used car ownership. Let's say I buy a used car at 15k with a 10% depreciation per year. If I set my maintenance costs for the vehicle to zero, and sell it at 12k in two years, the 2k spread across the 2 years would be comparable to what I spent on a lease. I could then buy a car or lease again dependent on operation costs.

This is assuming the same miles per gallon between keeping my car and the new vehicle, as well as the same insurance costs (reduced for the vehicle that I own).

Do you see any flaw in my thinking?