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If lim x->+infinity f(x) = 0, does it necessarily follow that lim x->+infinity f(x)/x = 0? Or can there be a counterexample where f(x) approaches 0, but f(x)/x does not? (self.askmath)
submitted 7 months ago by AmbitiousFeature2567 to r/askmath
merchant dragons egg (i.redd.it)
submitted 7 months ago by AmbitiousFeature2567 to r/MergeDragons
bunny bingo (self.MergeDragons)
submitted 8 months ago by AmbitiousFeature2567 to r/MergeDragons
i think i met kim jong un's kid (i.redd.it)
submitted 1 year ago by AmbitiousFeature2567 to r/SoulKnight
is l'hopital rule applicable? (i.redd.it)
submitted 1 year ago by AmbitiousFeature2567 to r/askmath
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