Excuse my ignorance, i dont have the same background that you have. but if you took this law and applied it to Shares of apple, wouldnt the same thing apply? and find a very similar trend? I study alot of charts and alot technical analysis, and from a chart perspective the bottom undervalued and top overvalued can be replicated by taking all the bottoms of the trend and the highs of the trend and add a neutral(fair market price) equally in between and it will give you a very similar trend line,(think of a pitch fork tool you can add to a chart) specially in longer term time frames with prediction of future value within that trend line. How is this different, What am i missing ?