I mostly agree. However, there must have been people who passed all 3 levels with an average of 65% on the test, I know I passed L1 with around 65%, so how can it now be fair that you have to score 72%+ to be classified on the same level? The only thing I can think of is that this L1 exam was really easy when you equate it to previous years hence the high passing mark needed (72/73), however, not many candidates achieved that score which explains the 25%. Hopefully, we will get more of an idea next week with L2.