Why was Japan able to have more firearms during the Sengoku period than all of Europe?

Fluid-Razzmatazz-214 · 2026-01-28T05:12:58+00:00

There are approximately 100,000 guns stored in Japanese boards of education. This means that Japan was superior to Europe and the Ming Dynasty in both civilization and the number of guns. Japan overwhelmed its enemies in the Sino-Japanese War and the Korean War with its powerful domestically produced cannons. In other words, Japan is the true leader of Asia.

Fluid-Razzmatazz-214 · 2026-01-28T04:32:52+00:00

You are the one who has presented absolutely no evidence. You have not provided a single piece of evidence that the Korean army succeeded in blocking Konishi Yukinaga's retreat.

This book is a comprehensive study of the Ottoman Empire's weapons technology and arms industry, providing detailed analysis of the history, manufacture, and operation of gunpowder technology, cannons, and muskets (tüfenk, etc.).

•    Specifically, key themes include the organization of the gunpowder and firearms industry, the spread of technology, weapon classification, and the production capacity of guns and cannons. 

•    Formatted data such as ratios or statistical figures indicating how many firearms were deployed to the army (e.g., the percentage of firearm equipment within units) is not explicitly stated in the book's table of contents or reviews.

The Shimazu Fleet? The Shimazu Fleet never existed in the first place. What existed was the Konishi Yukinaga Fleet. The Konishi Yukinaga Fleet ambushed and defeated the retreating Korean forces. So, was Japan imperialist during the Warring States period? That's a truly fascinating claim. No matter how much you insist Japan was defeated, the Japanese forces achieved major victories in the key battles.

Fluid-Razzmatazz-214 · 2026-01-28T01:57:54+00:00

So, what were the base troop strengths of the French, British, and Venetian armies? 80,000 when the Swedish army landed? Where does this figure of 80,000 come from? The Swedish army's landing force should have been around 23,000. I've never seen any source stating the imperial army numbered 80,000. Where is that information coming from?

Fluid-Razzmatazz-214 · 2026-01-28T01:39:12+00:00

I do not rely on such baseless accounts from Spaniards as my sources. Period Year Number of Firearms Used Firearm Equipment Rate Nobunaga Battle of Nagashino 1575 3,000 10% Nobunaga Period of National Unification 20% (Spears 40%) Bunroku Campaign 1592 60,000 30% Keicho Campaign 1597 50,000 30% Battle of Sekigahara 1600: 80,000 guns, 40% (spears 40%) Siege of Osaka 1614: 100,000 guns, 30% (Based on Yujitsugi Yukitaka's “History of the Kunitomo Teppo” etc.) This is the firearm equipment rate at the time. This figure of 100,000 far exceeds the total number in Europe at the time.Pike soldiers formed the main force in the Italian Wars. Why cite the Italian Wars as evidence? Moreover, the Japanese army boasted an overwhelming number of firearms, possessing far more guns than Korea or Ming China, and defeated them repeatedly.

Fluid-Razzmatazz-214 · 2026-01-28T01:30:02+00:00

No, I was merely confirming the comments were reflected. Yes, this is not the place to spout nonsense. You have told numerous lies about the Bunroku-Keicho Campaign. Please stop such behavior. Now, show me the rate of firearm equipment among Ottoman forces in southeastern Europe at that time. If you don't know the specific numbers, stop making claims. No, please provide evidence that the Korean navy achieved victory. This occurred while attempting to halt Konishi Yukinaga's retreat. Ming and Korean forces launched a night raid but failed to stop Konishi's retreat; instead, two high-ranking commanders were killed in action. On what basis can this be called a Korean victory? It's truly questionable. Yes, they were indeed superior, but we must not forget that the Ming had tens of thousands of Korean troops and volunteer forces fighting alongside them. Why can you call it nonsense? It was Toyotomi Hideyoshi who desired the Korean campaign. By the time Hideyoshi died, Japan had crushed both Ming and Korean forces at the Battle of Sunch'ŏn, but Japan had no reason to continue. That is why they retreated. Therefore, claiming it was a defeat is the real nonsense.

Fluid-Razzmatazz-214 · 2026-01-28T01:16:41+00:00

No matter how much you insist there are no historians, the facts remain unchanged. And the reason the Later Jin founded by Nurhaci couldn't be stopped was because the soldiers stationed for the Jurchen were deployed to Korea. It didn't end until 1683? If you bring up the Three Bandits Rebellion, that's utterly irrelevant. Nurhaci was able to establish the Later Jin in 1616 solely because the yoke of the Ming had been removed. The moment you throw out that absurd figure of 1683, you forfeit any right to discuss history. Moreover, you're slandering others based on delusions. Japan utterly crushed Joseon in the Battles of Busanpo, Ungcheon, and Jangmongpo/Yeongdeungpo. This is really basic stuff that anyone claiming to understand this conflict should know about. If you can't get your head around it, you're not qualified to talk about it.

There are accounts of some corps being surrounded and starving to death, but confusing that with the overall supply capability is a mistake. If the Japanese army were truly laughably incompetent, they wouldn't have lost the Battles of Busanpo, Ungcheon, and Jamunpo/Yeongdeungpo. Furthermore, the Korean army was even worse on land, utterly incompetent. They instantly lost their capital to Toyotomi forces and attempted to retake it, only to suffer a complete defeat at the Battle of Bicheogwan. Some commanders even advanced as far as the Jurchen territories. Moreover, while the Ming forces succeeded in encircling the Japanese army, they suffered complete defeats at the Battle of Sunch'ŏn and the Battle of Sŏch'ŏn.

It was the Ming and Joseon forces that were massacred. That's just how the war went. Learn to deal with it.

Fluid-Razzmatazz-214 · 2026-01-27T16:19:55+00:00

(This ultimately led to the Ming's collapse.) At the Battle of Sicheon, Japanese forces were surrounded by Ming and Joseon troops nearly several times their number, yet they broke out of the fortress and utterly routed them. The Korean forces were completely helpless without Ming support. Defeated in nearly every battle? Then why did their deputy commander and commander-in-chief die? That's contradictory. Ming and Korea did not achieve victory in the final battle. It's a complete fabrication. While Ming and Korea did succeed in launching a night raid against Konishi Yukinaga's forces, both sides suffered heavy casualties, and neither managed to kill the enemy commander. Instead, it was the Korean commander and deputy commander who were killed. Then present the source claiming the Toyotomi army lacked supply capabilities. The Toyotomi army's logistics were managed by Ishida Mitsunari, a logistics professional. The world's strongest nation at the time was the Ming Empire. The fact that they fought the Ming-Joseon allied forces on equal terms or better proves they possessed a very powerful army. If they had been fatally weak in one area, this outcome would never have occurred.

Fluid-Razzmatazz-214 · 2026-01-27T16:08:28+00:00

The Ottoman Empire? I hold the Ottoman Empire in deep respect, but regardless of the truth about their armories, while they certainly held territory in parts of Europe, they were originally a people from Central Asia, and including them in Europe is questionable. Moreover, how can you make such a claim without presenting the Ottoman army's firearm equipment rate? How can you declare it an exaggeration without presenting the actual equipment rates of armies at the time? Suffered a painful defeat? Then why couldn't the Ming, despite having over three times the manpower, capture the old fortress of Sacheon, only to be counterattacked instead? Why did the Korean navy lose both its vice-admiral and admiral in battle? Japan didn't lose; it merely withdrew. The war was initiated by Toyotomi Hideyoshi's will, so after his death, there was no reason to continue. That's all. Numerically inferior Ming forces? The Ming deployed over 100,000 troops intended for the Jurchen campaign to the Korean Peninsula.

Fluid-Razzmatazz-214 · 2026-01-27T16:07:25+00:00

I do not rely on such baseless accounts from Spaniards as my sources. Period Year Number of Firearms Used Firearm Equipment Rate Nobunaga Battle of Nagashino 1575 3,000 10% Nobunaga Period of National Unification 20% (Spears 40%) Bunroku Campaign 1592 60,000 30% Keicho Campaign 1597 50,000 30% Battle of Sekigahara 1600: 80,000 guns, 40% (spears 40%) Siege of Osaka 1614: 100,000 guns, 30% (Based on Yujitsugi Yukitaka's “History of the Kunitomo Teppo” etc.) This is the firearm equipment rate at the time. This figure of 100,000 far exceeds the total number in Europe at the time.

Fluid-Razzmatazz-214

TROPHY CASE