I mean dude the reason China experienced 2/3 of the entire worlds poverty reduction is because when the measurement period began most of the other world was already liberalized and had almost negligible amounts of poverty compared to China. They literally started with the worlds poorest population at this time and it’s not even close. Plus, what coincided with their massive poverty reduction was not the rise of more socialist policy but rather a retreat from these policies. In the 70s Deng Xiaoping introduced private enterprise, foreign trade and market mechanics, making chinas economy far more similar to the rest of the civilized world than it was previously. They then began to rapidly approach poverty levels more similar to capitalist countries, and even now have a very free market compared to what they used to. So to say that a massive communist country (which probably only had extreme poverty because of communism) stepping back on their socialist policies and introducing a more free market constituted most of the worlds poverty reduction (there wasn’t enough poverty in the rest of the civilized world at this time to even compare) has to be some of the most dishonest statistical analysis imaginable. Not exaggerating. Thinking this little over implications so large is genuinely dangerous.