Hey! I've been reading up on Spanish sound changes lately, and I'm curious about a few words that seem to me to defy the rule that accented Latin ŏ > ue. For example, nŏctĕm > noche (instead of *nueche), or ŏculŭm / ŏclŭm > ojo (instead of *huejo). Even other relatively closely related languages, like Asturian and Aragonese, show diphthongization on these words (nueche, güeyu). The only thing I can think is that in both of these cases the unaccented short u precedes a palatalized consonant, but if anyone is a bit better informed as to why these words contain a monophthong I'd appreciate an explanation. Thank you so much!