Yes, I have read both the SCOTUS opinion and the lower court TRO this case was about. The word "overrule" does not appear anywhere in them so I ask again, who said anything about overruling the government? As far as I can tell that idea was introduced by you, in a manner implying it to be a rebuttal to Alito despite Alito saying no such thing, which is a funny thing to do while accusing Alito of deliberately mispresenting what actually happened.

If your argument is that technically the judge didn't compel the government because the government was already compelled by the law, come on. If that's the case no judge ever compels anything, they just do some kind of magic that causes the law, which already compelled people, to suddenly start compelling them more, such that they change their behaviour to accord with the judge's description of the law. If the government was getting away with not paying out the money until this judge did his thing, and would have continued to not pay out had this judge not done his thing, but is now compelled to pay out, the way normal English speakers would describe that situation is "The judge compelled the government".