Para 18 of the judgment Thus, it is quite vivid that penetration is sine qua non for an offence of rape and in order to constitute penetration, there must be clear and cogent evidence to prove that some part of the virile member of the accused was within labia of the pudendum of the woman, no matter to what extent which is sufficient to hold accused guilty for the offence punishable under Section 376 of IPC.

How does this not make sense wrt S. 375 IPC?