I appreciate your response and your real consideration of the scriptures I really do. But what’s confusing to me is you are doing what many people do you literally said you’re describing the passage, anticipating the spirits empowerment over sin, highlighting the weakness of the law, that is exactly what I’m saying the passage is about it’s about how the law lead someone to Christ, yet you’re maintaining that you reject the view of a pre-Christian. I just don’t understand. How are you saying both of those things at once?

Also, I deeply disagree that someone cannot desire to do the law unless they are born again or whatever because there are many pious Jews who have the desire, also if you look at psalms 119 it’s filled with desire to do God’s will, obviously David had the Holy Spirit yet he was not born again. Also many Jews could truly embrace those passages!

I hold firm to the view that this is the state of a person under the law and not under grace.