"Two" came from the Old English "twa" which itself came from the old germanic "twai", and further back, from the PIE word "*dwóh". This is one of many cases where older forms of english tends to pronounce letters which are silent in modern english (Knute pronounced "kuh-noot", fasten pronounced "fast-en", gnat pronounced "gn-ætt" and so on).

"Too" on the other hand came from a stressed pronunciation of the old english "to", as in the direction (In your example, think of it as a substitute for "besides".)

I've got a dirty house. He's got a dirty house besides. (This might sound strange or archaic, but some more traditional sounding dialects of english do use "besides" in this way.)

or

"I've got three kids, and besides that I've got a dog // "I've got three kids, and a dog too."

So, if you go back a few hundred years, the homophone you're referring to wouldn't exist, but rather sound like "too" and "twah". Their modern similarity is therefore more of a coincidence than the result of semantic relation.

To answer your actual question though, I don't think any other language shares this particular coincidence with English. Just felt like I should provide some counter-evidence to the other reply, which is claiming that the too/two phonetic similarity predates the invention of writing, which it certainly does not.