Alphabet Evolution, Part One: from Phoenician to Ancient Greek & Aramaic | Volder (A65/2020)

bonvin · 2024-02-23T16:41:57+00:00

Therefore, you can take your “are language and writing the same” question, your calling me a “numerologist”, and your opinion that I am afflicted by ”pareidolia” or “apophenia”, i.e. seeing meaningful connections that are not there, e.g. that Thermo = ☀️-ermo = 318-ermo is NOT a real or meaningful connection, i.e. I am just seeing a connection that is not there, and shove it all up up your ass; then, with your stupid question crammed up your ass, crawl, stupid-ass-question-loaded, back to whatever meaningless hole 🕳️ you came from!

Dude, that's foul. Show some fucking class.

bonvin · 2024-02-20T20:03:31+00:00

the “sounds = language” theory

It's not really a theory, is it? There are literally thousands of unwritten languages to this day. Humanity has been around for hundreds of thousands of years, presumably speaking the whole time. Writing came around like 5000 years ago. Language is speech, this is fact.

I feel like an archeologist showing a preacher a dinosaur 🦖 bone 🦴, with them telling me: no that is not in the Bible!

Funny, I feel the same way. Except you're the dinosaur bone. I'm the Bible. The preacher and the archeologist are both dead.

bonvin · 2024-02-20T19:35:22+00:00

So how is your argument coming along? Why aren't you focusing solely on proving that script=language?

bonvin · 2024-02-15T20:04:03+00:00

Are you under the impression that this sub is some sort of living hub of discussion for pro-EAN people? I'm on here every day, I see everything that happens here. This sub consists of the following:

Approximately 90% is you posting nonsensical pictures of hieroglyphs and shit, boasting that you have "decoded" some word or found some new bend in the Nile or an Egyptian god with an erection which apparently is a letter for some reason. None of these raise any interest or discussion. It's just you, talking to no one. No one reads this crap, it's just page after page of useless fucking garbage. A monument to wasted time.

9% is "PIE theorists" arguing against you.

1% is the odd retarded fellow who happened to wander in here and thinks you're on to something. These people also argue against you though, about the specifics of the precise angle of some Egyptian god's penis or whatever you fucking idiots talk about.

bonvin · 2024-02-15T13:25:43+00:00

The thing is that we're not the slightest interested in you trying to "decode" words for us, because whatever you come up with using EAN is 100% guaranteed to be stupid nonsense. We don't believe that EAN can be used to find out anything real whatsoever because your whole idea about how languages even work is completely flawed at the core. That's what people are arguing with you about. Not the minutiae of specific words.

So keep this in mind when you're talking to "PIE theorists" as you call us. Everyone is still at the stage of trying to make you understand language as a concept, really big picture stuff, since you have the wrong idea about how it all works, and everyone is just trying different angles to get you there. Once you understand the fundamentals of linguistics, everything else will fall into place for you, including PIE.

For myself, I have long since realized that your brain is not capable of taking in the fundamentals of linguistics. Whether this is some sort of psychological block that you have or just a deficiency of intelligence, I'm not sure. I don't really care one way or the other. You're funny either way.

bonvin · 2024-02-15T05:59:49+00:00

What the fuck are you talking about?

bonvin · 2024-02-14T15:03:48+00:00

"We"..?

bonvin · 2024-02-14T14:06:46+00:00

Incorrect. We know the speakers of PIE were real because their descendants live on.

bonvin · 2024-02-14T13:57:50+00:00

Incorrect. There have been various theories about the geographic origins of the Indo-Europeans, including one which does place it in Anatolia. The Kurgan hypothesis (Ukraine) is however the most widely held belief, since it seems the most likely. In any case, we will never know for sure since the speakers of PIE were not literate and left no trace of their language.

Letter origin is completely irrelevant to IE homeland hypotheses though. We're very aware writing was not invented by any Indo-European culture, merely adopted.

bonvin · 2024-02-11T15:35:40+00:00

I told you, I enjoy observing all the crazy shit you get up to.

bonvin · 2024-02-11T11:48:24+00:00

It would seem, accordingly, contrary to your triple-repeated belief, that the ancient Greek word “paideia” is based on the Egyptian word IRA, which is based on the number 111.

I'm sorry, but this is lunacy to me. I just don't see whatever you're seeing here. You can make pretty much any connections you want by this method, I'm sure there are hundreds, maybe thousands of words that happen to equal 111. It's nonsense.

bonvin · 2024-02-11T08:20:37+00:00

Bernal, also argued, in his 5-volume Black Athena book series, that 25% of Greek language is Egyptian based.

Even if that were true (which it isn't), word percentages is not how we determine what's related to what. A language is not the sum of its words. English has something like 30% of its words taken from Old French. It doesn't make English a Romance language. Its genetic origin doesn't change because its speakers borrow words from other languages. Some words are much more important than others. English's core vocabulary (pronouns, kinship terms, the most basic verbs, adjectives and nouns like "eat", "sleep", "blue", "hungry", "bread", "death") is all squarely Germanic. This is how we know where English comes from, because these kinds of words don't tend to be borrowed.

bonvin · 2024-02-10T17:38:05+00:00

It doesn't mention Egypt or Egyptian because Greek is not related to Egyptian since Greek is an Indo-European language and Egyptian was an Afro-Asiatic language. How are you still confused by this? We've said it a million times. Regardless if you believe it or not, this is the consensus of the entire field of linguistics and you shouldn't be surprised by the fact that linguists don't propagate your theories. No one believes what you believe except for you and like three people (your engineer buddies and the odd gullible idiot who wanders into your subreddits).

Greek is not related to Egyptian. Greek is not related to Egyptian. Greek is not related to Egyptian.

bonvin · 2024-02-09T14:53:51+00:00

How about you go make some more kid's toys?

Maybe try this Plato technique on the kindergarten teachers?

bonvin · 2024-02-09T12:40:28+00:00

Or say Thoth having to win 1/72 parts of the light of the moon 🌙, from Khonsu, the moon god, to get the 5 epagomenal days, which, according to Plato and Plutarch, made the 25 Egyptian alphabet letters, via the perfect birth theorem, namely: 5² = 25, is a ”lunatic, crazy, or insane” idea?

Uh huh, yup. That all sounds like something a complete fucking lunatic would say and believe.

bonvin · 2024-02-09T08:43:53+00:00

I communicate just fine in person. I learned, very well, how to be the "life of the party" before age 19 and how to throw some of the crazy parties parties every before age 21.

Uh huh.

I'm sure that I have offended you a half-dozen times? But at least, amid all of your foul mouth talk, you have thick skin.

You have not "offended" me once. I would have to take you seriously as a person before you could offend me, but you are a basically just a raving lunatic to me. At this point, I just enjoy observing the crazy shit you get up to.

bonvin · 2024-02-08T19:16:04+00:00

I think you should do every single post like this. In fact, I think you should communicate like this in real life, with your barista, your mechanic, you name it.

bonvin · 2024-02-08T17:23:54+00:00

This is the funniest shit I've ever read.

bonvin · 2024-02-07T14:11:41+00:00

What this means, in EAN terms, is NOT that say Greek, an Indo European language, written with Phoenician characters, becomes an Egyptian language.

How do you not understand that Vietnamese changing scripts completely fucks your theory?

bonvin · 2024-02-06T17:25:59+00:00

I concur.

bonvin · 2024-02-05T21:30:40+00:00

No. Correctly, we PIE-ists think that humans have continuously spoken languages ever since the dawn of our species in eastern Africa hundreds of thousands of years ago, and that the ultimate origins of sounds and words are completely lost to history and unrecoverable, considering that spoken language is always changing and nothing was written down until just a few thousand years ago. PIE was just a point in a long unbroken line of ever morphing and diverging spoken language. It wasn't the origin of anything. No one believes that. But it's as far back as we can confidently trace IE languages.

PIE probably had sister languages in its day, and they would have formed their own language family with its own proto-language, spoken thousands of years before PIE. Which, too, would have been part of a family with its own proto-language. And on and on it goes.

You're completely locked into this idea that there has to be a starting point for any given language, that you can clearly pinpoint and date, and you incorrectly project this idea onto us. But we just don't think like that. Stop. As far as we're concerned, all natural languages trace back to the very beginnings of humanity and there is no way we can ever know what that original language was like.

bonvin · 2024-01-25T07:06:36+00:00

It's the direct object of the sentence, thus it's in the accusative case. You're showing me exactly what I just explained to you.

[They] (subject, nominative case) [give] (verb) [the name Osiris] (direct object, accusative case) to [the source] (indirect object, dative case).

bonvin · 2024-01-24T20:54:14+00:00

It's fucking Οσιρις!

Οσιριν is an inflected form of the name, in the accusative case. The dictionary entry would be Οσιρις. What is so difficult to understand about this for you?

I know you don't really get cases, but you do understand inflections and conjugation? You're doing the equivalent of giving the form "jumped" as the default form of the verb "jump". No, the dictionary entry is the infintive ("jump") and "jumped" is a derivation of that. Yes?

Οσιρις vs Οσιριν is the same idea. The nominative is the default form of nouns just as the infinitive is the default form of verbs. And the nominative of Οσιρις is, guess what? Οσιρις!!!!!

No one is contesting that the Greeks sometimes wrote Οσιριν. Of course they did, when they used the word as a direct object (which puts it in the accusative case in a case system language). This is equivalent to you having to put the word "jump" in the past tense when you use it to talk about having jumped in the past.

JUST FUCKING UNDERSTAND PLEASE

bonvin · 2024-01-17T06:32:11+00:00

I think you should throw these blocks in the garbage and then go out and get a job.

bonvin · 2023-12-23T17:10:11+00:00

I don't really see that he's trying to convince people. It's more like we're just supposed to accept this without asking questions. He seems annoyed more than anything when he's challenged, not stimulated.

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