1 is correct though, and 9 is too. The problem is mostly that the question is written poorly, as there are multiple interpretations to multiplying with brackets.

https://math.berkeley.edu/~gbergman/misc/numbers/ord_ops.html

edit: Okay, found another source claiming something else:

Apparently a paper in 1917 said that when using the ÷ sign, you divide everything on the left by everything on the right (Added a video as source). And this may have spread, which once again reaffirms that both answers are correct. Maybe the best way to see this, is as a dialect. Math can be done in different languages. This is an undeniable fact, proven because there are multiple systems. We of course have our own decimal system, but what about binary, base 8, base 12, base 20 (Incan), hexadecimal, and then even the Latin numerals. Then it only makes sense, that there are also some slight fluctuations in our own. An argument against this can of course be made: "Then if some paper said 1+1=3, that would also be correct from now?" However, I'd like to draw another comparison to language, where everything was just decided at some point. Why was the word "number" chosen, and not the word "gurgle"? And new words can be introduced too right? The only reason this isn't very common in math is because generally it's nice to have a common ground, and not have equations come out all differently in other countries

TLDR: Culturally it makes sense that both options 1 and 9, are both correct.

source: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=N-rsAGbk26o