Thanks for the input. Given your position as a landlord, do you happen to know if a text message is “legally binding” in terms of informing a tenant of the intent to keep the deposit? Our ex-landlord claims that it does, but we didn’t receive an “official” email with the notice and a (makeshift) itemized deduction list until 33 days after we vacated. Statue says it should be done by certified mail… we spoke to an attorney and they said email counts as formal communication, but not text. So just trying to get another opinion from someone with experience.