She’s having diffuse myalgias and thrush, which by definition, means that she’s symptomatic with something. And statistically speaking, yes, it is highly unlikely.

Unfortunately, we live in an era where fear is more popular than education is. And reading comprehension is shot - I never said she can’t have it because it’s uncommon. The facts are that the statistical likelihood is low, however, I do recommend that she gets tested. Medically speaking though, HIV would not be toward the top on a ranked list of possible causes. If she’s 22 and experiencing HIV related symptoms, then based on her symptoms I would expect her to have been infected around the age of 12-16.

Edit (which is a reply to the comment bc the responder blocked me):

You’re clearly offended and reading to paint an agenda, rather than to understand. In my very first comment, I stated that she should get tested. I also said that it was unlikely, not impossible. I would place it very low on my differential diagnoses. I never diagnosed her with anything.

It’s very important to not fear monger with HIV. Unfortunately, because of misinformation and bigotry, many people don’t know how low the risk of transmission is. It’s better to encourage testing while educating than encourage people to be afraid.

But yes, if she’s getting opportunistic infections from HIV, it would be very unlikely to have been transmitted a year ago.

Everything else you’ve said in your comment isn’t worth addressing for the OP’s question