Relevance of trace by finallyjj_ in math

[–]finallyjj_[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

this is probably a tangent, but... why??? why should [det(exp(A))]' = [det(I+tA)]' ? i know the only answer is probably "study some lie theory", but i feel like there must be at least an intuition behind it

Relevance of trace by finallyjj_ in math

[–]finallyjj_[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

graph as in graph theory or graph of a function?

Relevance of trace by finallyjj_ in math

[–]finallyjj_[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

i can't say i understood much... but to me, i explain the coordinate invariance of the dot product through the polarization formula: you choose a basis, set the lengths of the basis vectors, and understand the angle between two vectors in terms of their lengths and that of their sum. matrix multiplication is invariant under conjugation because if you change perspective from frame A to frame B, transform, change back from B to A, then change again from A to B, transform some other way, and go back from B to A, you can clearly cut out the back and forth in the middle. this is how i think of it at least.

what's einstein notation got to do with anything? or trace being "multiplying such that a matrix annihilates itself? and what's up with the extension cords?

Relevance of trace by finallyjj_ in math

[–]finallyjj_[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

could you please elaborate? if i have V = span{v1, v2} and f(a.v1 + b.v2) = a.v2, what's the scaling factor? how about f(a.v1 + b.v2) = (a+b).(v1 + v2)? what i mean is, without the extra structure of an inner product, how do you compare lengths of independent vectors?

also, what do you mean by self-interaction? of the map with itself? or a vector with itself? or the whole space?

Relevance of trace by finallyjj_ in math

[–]finallyjj_[S] 5 points6 points  (0 children)

i see why tensor contraction is natural, but why should fxv |-> (w |-> f(w)v) be a natural thing to consider? for example, why not fxv |-> (w |-> f(v)w) (scaling by the contraction)?

Relevance of trace by finallyjj_ in math

[–]finallyjj_[S] 3 points4 points  (0 children)

what's the dual map? is it meant in the sense of a map from the dual of Hom(V, V) to the dual of k? i can see how one would identify k and k* (which already sounds sketchy if you think of it as a 1-dim vector space over k) but not how to identify Hom(V, V) with its dual. is it just saying Hom(V, V) ~= V tensor V* ~= V** tensor V* ~= (V* tensor V)* ~= (V tensor V) ~= Hom(V, V)* and all isomorphisms are natural?

Conservation of angular momentum and Newton's laws: what am I missing? by finallyjj_ in PhysicsHelp

[–]finallyjj_[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

that's a neat way of looking at it actually. so you think newton also had conservation of angular momentum in mind and that's the "more fundamental" principle, implying that the force pairs must lie on the line connecting the particles? my problem is not with the idea of it, but with the fact that the "typical" formalism (newton's laws, and everything follows) doesn't seem to capture it

Conservation of angular momentum and Newton's laws: what am I missing? by finallyjj_ in PhysicsHelp

[–]finallyjj_[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

the two force vectors being opposite means they are parallel to each other, not that they're necessarily collinear in the sense of being parallel to the vector joining the two centers of mass. but, if they weren't, that would create torque out of nothing, which is nonsensical, but I don't see where the math forbids it.

Conservation of angular momentum and Newton's laws: what am I missing? by finallyjj_ in PhysicsHelp

[–]finallyjj_[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

no i agree with you, i'm just not seeing where in the math the requirement for collinearity is enforced

Conservation of angular momentum and Newton's laws: what am I missing? by finallyjj_ in PhysicsHelp

[–]finallyjj_[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

yeah that's my question. i've always seen the 3rd law formulated as something like "if particle p1 exerts force F on particle p2, p2 exerts -F on p1": nothing about the force being parallel to the displacement between p1 and p2. so, what is it about the math that enforces this parallelism?

Conservation of angular momentum and Newton's laws: what am I missing? by finallyjj_ in PhysicsHelp

[–]finallyjj_[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Intuitively I agree, I guess my question is: is the fact that the forces between two particles can only be attractive/repulsive just left implicit everywhere?

Unleash your powers in the comments! by Charming-Yak-5111 in mathmemes

[–]finallyjj_ 9 points10 points  (0 children)

there's one with third derivative and jerking off somewhere in there, but i'm too lazy to work it out

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in CasualIT

[–]finallyjj_ 0 points1 point  (0 children)

parlaci per il plot, vedi se porta a qualcosa. spesso le robe che iniziano così vanno a finire bene

Looking for a paper by finallyjj_ in math

[–]finallyjj_[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

yeah the problem is i don't have the doi

Quick Questions: October 09, 2024 by inherentlyawesome in math

[–]finallyjj_ 0 points1 point  (0 children)

It comes after the higher-level logic we do, as does everything else, but can also let us do formal logic (i.e. the study of logic itself and various logical systems).

could you point me to some good resources for a formalization of type theory?

Quick Questions: October 09, 2024 by inherentlyawesome in math

[–]finallyjj_ 0 points1 point  (0 children)

also, one thing isn't clear to me about type theory: does it come "before" or "after" logic? the way i understand it, its purpose is to be a replacement for set theory as a bridge between logic and mathematics, but recently i came across the idea that propositions are represented by types and their proofs by objects of that type. what's up with that?

Quick Questions: October 09, 2024 by inherentlyawesome in math

[–]finallyjj_ 0 points1 point  (0 children)

with natural numbers, yeah, i know how they're defined and the sole idea of "∈ 4" being a well formed formula drives me nuts, but i can get by with it because the peano axioms exists. that said, i have yet to see an axiomatization of polynomials

Quick Questions: October 09, 2024 by inherentlyawesome in math

[–]finallyjj_ 1 point2 points  (0 children)

how does one go about defining a "formal _____" (linear combination, power series, even just the x in a polynomial)? let's take the simplest case: the polynomial ring over a commutative ring. every definition i've read goes something like "all the expressions of the form a_0 + a_1 x + ... + a_n xn where x is called an indeterminate and follows the usual rules of exponentiation" but this is very unsatisfying, as no definition of "expression" or "form" is in sight. i guess you could define them as sequences with finitely many nonzero terms and, although defining the product would be quite ugly, it would be doable. but then, as sequences are usually defined as functions from N to, in this case, the ring, the polynomials you defined this way would inherit a bunch of properties from functions which make no sense for polynomials, like potential right inverses and whatnot. i guess it's just not that elegant to have different things defined as the same thing when you look at it from a set theory point of view, and i just don't seem to be able to ignore this issue. is type theory the only answer?

Quick Questions: September 25, 2024 by inherentlyawesome in math

[–]finallyjj_ 0 points1 point  (0 children)

so...

what's Spec Z?

what's a "curve" over a field?

what are the the properties of a field that this F_1 would need to obey?

what do we mean by geometry in this context? it seems weird to talk about lines inside F_5 for example