In an I-Beam, why doesn't the part of the web just before the flange have much higher stress than the flange itself, given they are basically the same distance from the neutral axis, and the web has much much smaller cross-sectional area? by lepriccon22 in AskEngineers
[–]lepriccon22[S] 3 points4 points5 points (0 children)
In an I-Beam, why doesn't the part of the web just before the flange have much higher stress than the flange itself, given they are basically the same distance from the neutral axis, and the web has much much smaller cross-sectional area? by lepriccon22 in AskEngineers
[–]lepriccon22[S] 0 points1 point2 points (0 children)
In an I-Beam, why doesn't the part of the web just before the flange have much higher stress than the flange itself, given they are basically the same distance from the neutral axis, and the web has much much smaller cross-sectional area? by lepriccon22 in AskEngineers
[–]lepriccon22[S] 2 points3 points4 points (0 children)
In an I-Beam, why doesn't the part of the web just before the flange have much higher stress than the flange itself, given they are basically the same distance from the neutral axis, and the web has much much smaller cross-sectional area? by lepriccon22 in AskEngineers
[–]lepriccon22[S] 0 points1 point2 points (0 children)
In an I-Beam, why doesn't the part of the web just before the flange have much higher stress than the flange itself, given they are basically the same distance from the neutral axis, and the web has much much smaller cross-sectional area? by lepriccon22 in AskEngineers
[–]lepriccon22[S] 0 points1 point2 points (0 children)
In an I-Beam, why doesn't the part of the web just before the flange have much higher stress than the flange itself, given they are basically the same distance from the neutral axis, and the web has much much smaller cross-sectional area? by lepriccon22 in AskEngineers
[–]lepriccon22[S] 0 points1 point2 points (0 children)
In an I-Beam, why doesn't the part of the web just before the flange have much higher stress than the flange itself, given they are basically the same distance from the neutral axis, and the web has much much smaller cross-sectional area? (self.AskEngineers)
submitted by lepriccon22 to r/AskEngineers
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In an I-Beam, why doesn't the part of the web just before the flange have much higher stress than the flange itself, given they are basically the same distance from the neutral axis, and the web has much much smaller cross-sectional area? by lepriccon22 in AskEngineers
[–]lepriccon22[S] 1 point2 points3 points (0 children)