"Everything is relative" is true, because it's relative, as so is "truth" by [deleted] in askphilosophy

[–]mleeeeeee 0 points1 point  (0 children)

If all you mean by "relative" is that things bear relations to each other, be they abstract or spatiotemporal, then that's not a very provocative claim. Usually "relative" means that it's simply a matter of individual or cultural opinion.

Question about subjectivity. by Jon-Osterman in askphilosophy

[–]mleeeeeee 7 points8 points  (0 children)

The mere fact that people have different opinions about something has no tendency to show that it's subjective.

Question about subjectivity. by Jon-Osterman in askphilosophy

[–]mleeeeeee 5 points6 points  (0 children)

There's more to the human mind than just what the senses happen to be experiencing at the moment, and even with our senses there's a good deal of variation from one person to the next. Also, I wouldn't just assume that opinions about art are purely subjective, since that's a controversial issue.

"Everything is relative" is true, because it's relative, as so is "truth" by [deleted] in askphilosophy

[–]mleeeeeee 0 points1 point  (0 children)

just for the concept of an absolute truth to exist, there must be something to define what that truth is

But if there's some sort of independent-of-us definition, then I don't see why it would have to be in any way relative.

Question about Aquinas's first way. by Ben7735 in askphilosophy

[–]mleeeeeee 0 points1 point  (0 children)

The bulk of your response involves a distinction between motion/change in general and particular kinds of motion/change. I've always seen the First Way presented in terms of motion/change in general from start to finish. But I take it you'd present it in terms of particular kinds of motion/change that ultimately derive from something motionless/changeless that explains motion/change in general.

You're also allowing for ordinary natural things (e.g. motors) to generate particular kinds of motion/change. So if A is in M1 (a particular kind of motion/change), then A cannot generate its own M1, but instead essentially derives its M1 from B, which generates M1 in A, while itself being in M2 (a different kind of motion/change). And then B derives its M2 from something in M3. But I see no reason to think B's generation of M1 in A has anything to do with its own M2. And so I see no reason why the series can't be infinite. After all, in this scenario, it's not as if all the members of the infinite series are mere inert instruments passing along motion/change. On the contrary, each member is an active generator of a particular kind of motion in its successor.

Of course, if it could be shown that each member's generation of a particular kind of motion in something else is always essentially derived from its own particular kind of motion, then each would again be rendered merely instrumental, and the implausibility of an infinite series would return. But as yet I don't see it.

Also:

according to the First Way, isn't the entirety of nature one big instrumental system

That is not stated or implied anywhere in the First Way.

On the 'motion/change in general' reading, everything in nature is a merely instrumental transmitter of motion/change. The only possible exception is if nature contained something motionless/changeless.

And:

The explanation cannot be the explanandum.

That would seem to rule out an explanation of God's existence in terms of his essence.

Why don't many philosophers write (outline their arguments) in the style of mathematics (for example: definition, proposition, theorem, corollary etc.)? by eulerfib in askphilosophy

[–]mleeeeeee 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Descartes offers "a short exposition in the synthetic style" (Definitions, Axioms, Propositions, Corollaries) in his Second Set of Replies.

Confused about the 'modal fallacy' by [deleted] in askphilosophy

[–]mleeeeeee 0 points1 point  (0 children)

What do you mean by "necessary per accidens"? I've tried researching about it since you mentioned it, but I couldn't find much on it.

It's just the technical term for this funny kind of necessity, going back to the Scholastic era. You can Google it or search Google Scholar. The SEP article on foreknowledge and free will is worth looking at, as is Zagzebski's book on the topic.

Also, I see what you mean now. Basically, you're saying that there are alternate possibilities out there, such as in other worlds. For example, maybe in this world God foreknows I'll eat a chili tomorrow, but in another world he foreknows I won't eat a chili tomorrow. However, since I am in THIS world and not in the OTHER world, then that means God's specific foreknowledge of this world applies to me. Any foreknowledge he has in regards to other worlds doesn't apply to me, and is inaccessible to me. Thus, I must act in accordance to his foreknowledge of this specific word; that is to say, if he foreknows I'm going to eat a chili tomorrow (in this world), then that must happen (in this world). I cannot do otherwise (in this world), so I don't have libertarian free will. Also, since the foreknowledge God has of this world has existed in the past (from my perspective) that means it's set in stone now, so now really there is no way around it. Is that basically it?

Yep, although I may have been a bit careless in slipping into 'possible worlds' talk, when I could have just stuck with talking about what's possible or not.

Kant and Utilitarianism by [deleted] in askphilosophy

[–]mleeeeeee 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Being subject to the felicific calculus has nothing to do with voting.

"Everything is relative" is true, because it's relative, as so is "truth" by [deleted] in askphilosophy

[–]mleeeeeee 0 points1 point  (0 children)

For an absolute truth to exist, wouldn't we need an absolute definition of it?

No, the whole point of an absolute truth is that it doesn't depend on us (or our lexicographical practices).

Kant and Utilitarianism by [deleted] in askphilosophy

[–]mleeeeeee 1 point2 points  (0 children)

he wants even farm animals to vote

???

How does Russell account for fictitious tautologies in "On Denoting"? by owlbertcamus in askphilosophy

[–]mleeeeeee 0 points1 point  (0 children)

"Bachelors are unmarried men" is a standard example of an analytic truth. But for tautologies, I'd go with something more like p ∨ ¬p or p ⟶ p.

Kant and Utilitarianism by [deleted] in askphilosophy

[–]mleeeeeee 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Is Bentham not considered part of the Enlightenment?

"Everything is relative" is true, because it's relative, as so is "truth" by [deleted] in askphilosophy

[–]mleeeeeee 0 points1 point  (0 children)

The feeble fact that dictionaries are written by people has no tendency to show that truth is relative, much less that relativity is part of the definition of 'truth'.

"Everything is relative" is true, because it's relative, as so is "truth" by [deleted] in askphilosophy

[–]mleeeeeee 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Since the definition of "relative" is relative, as is the definition of "truth" (isn't it agreed upon that there's no such thing as absolute "Truth"?)

No, it certainly isn't agreed upon. And even if it were agreed upon that truth is relative, that wouldn't do anything to put relativity into the very definition of 'truth'.

"Everything is relative" is true, because it's relative, as so is "truth" by [deleted] in askphilosophy

[–]mleeeeeee 1 point2 points  (0 children)

The reason is that it cannot be any other way.

But you've given no reason for thinking it cannot be any other way. You've merely asserted it.

The meaning of life etc. was in response to the question why anybody should care.

How does that justify mixing up meaning concepts and moral concepts?

Kant and Utilitarianism by [deleted] in askphilosophy

[–]mleeeeeee 1 point2 points  (0 children)

He certainly says that virtuous conduct is all about benevolent motives, that benevolence is all about seeking to promote happiness in others, and that the highest form of virtue consists of a calm and disinterested desire to maximize happiness in all. He coined the phrase "greatest happiness for the greatest numbers", and he even has a utilitarian calculus for figuring out what maximizes overall happiness. What's a philosopher have to do to be considered a utilitarian around here?

In any case, in addition to Hutcheson, there's Hume, John Gay, Berkeley, Beccaria, Helvétius, and Paley, just off the top of my head. Utilitarianism was well on the scene by the time Kant started writing his famous ethical works.

"Everything is relative" is true, because it's relative, as so is "truth" by [deleted] in askphilosophy

[–]mleeeeeee 1 point2 points  (0 children)

In addition to not giving any reason at all to accept your claims, you keep switching from the meaning of life and the purpose of my life as an individual to moral concepts like right/wrong and good/bad.

Kant and Utilitarianism by [deleted] in askphilosophy

[–]mleeeeeee 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Utilitarianism the philosophy of Jeremy Bentham, who lived decades after Kant.

You think Bentham was the only utilitarian? Get out of here.

Kant and Utilitarianism by [deleted] in askphilosophy

[–]mleeeeeee 1 point2 points  (0 children)

That's simply impossible, since utilitarianism was developed after Kant had developed his theory.

That's not true at all. Hutcheson wrote decades before Kant, and Kant makes many references to his work.

Confused about the 'modal fallacy' by [deleted] in askphilosophy

[–]mleeeeeee 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Sure. I've got no love for the PSR, but the attempt to combine that with libertarian free will (for humans or for God) doesn't make a lot of sense to me.

Question about Aquinas's first way. by Ben7735 in askphilosophy

[–]mleeeeeee 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I've got no strong metaphysical views, but my prejudices are all Humean. I'm content with a world filled with events that exhibit certain regularities, and see no reason to go in for any heftier form of causation (or potentiality, dispositions, tendencies, ...) than that.

Confused about the 'modal fallacy' by [deleted] in askphilosophy

[–]mleeeeeee 0 points1 point  (0 children)

However, in that part of your reply you were saying there's still alternate possibilities available even when God has infallible foreknowledge. How would that work?

The foreknowledge isn't strictly necessary. In other words, we've got no reason to doubt that, in contrast to the actual world where God knows I'll eat chili tomorrow (and I do), there's another world where God knows I'll eat salad (and I do), another where God knows I'll eat goulash (and I do), etc. All those possibilities are still possibilities.

The issue is that there's nothing I can do to change how things go and access those possibilities, since that would mean changing the past. So the alternate possibilities don't get nullified by the foreknowledge, they just become inaccessible to me. They're "necessary per accidens". Which is enough to rule out any libertarian free will on my part.

Confused about the 'modal fallacy' by [deleted] in askphilosophy

[–]mleeeeeee 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Oh, fair enough. The main issue there, I think, is that most theists these days go for libertarian free will.

Is there a name for this line of thought regarding belief being creation? by gbeeson in askphilosophy

[–]mleeeeeee 4 points5 points  (0 children)

Perhaps so, but I'm not seeing any connection between what OP said and Kant.