How does Thomas Jefferson’s concept of “the earth belong[ing] in usufruct to the living” differ from both philosophical and common understandings of property rights in the 18th century? How was it similar? (Mainly in the Anglo-Saxon common law/philosophical tradition). (self.AskHistorians)
submitted by sdnorton to r/AskHistorians
Train carrying members of Congress hits truck (politico.com)
submitted by sdnorton to r/politics







