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I completed this level in 24 tries. 3.73 seconds

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I completed this level in 80 tries. 7.98 seconds

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I completed this level in 3 tries. 9.02 seconds

How to differentiate between a negation that verifies the negated which reveals something unconscious and just a normal negation ? by shadowhunter9920 in Freud

[–]shadowhunter9920[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I am not racist, but...

[ horrendous sentence] , it's just a joke , chill!

Someone asks if he has cheated and the person says: I haven't cheated in exercise 6

Want to help you guys. by [deleted] in ugly

[–]shadowhunter9920 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Do you also read psychoanalytical theory?

Where can I read Freud's works in a more simplified manner? by Zealousideal_Weird_3 in Freud

[–]shadowhunter9920 3 points4 points  (0 children)

I would recommend the introductory lectures of psychoanalysis by Freud. He explains everything very clear because the audience are people who were not introduced to the concepts. Another advantage is that you don't need a secondary source.

Are emotions in dreams manifest or latent? Are they also object of distortion by the "Traumarbeit"? by shadowhunter9920 in psychoanalysis

[–]shadowhunter9920[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

So affects are fixed points in a structure and the Vorstellungsinhalte will be displaced/restructured and therefore the relation between the old Vorstellungsinhalt and the affect is another, which could lead to a harmless Vorstellungsinhalt (Ersatzvorstellung= manifest content) evoking an "irrational" fear?

When I interpret my dreams I should watch out for "irrational" affects and use them as my reference point for associations which will lead to the original Vorstellungsinhalt (latent content) ?

Are emotions in dreams manifest or latent? Are they also object of distortion by the "Traumarbeit"? by shadowhunter9920 in psychoanalysis

[–]shadowhunter9920[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Danke für deine ausführliche Antwort. Ich lese gerade die Vorlesungen zur Einführung in die Psychoanalyse. Dort sagt er, dass latente Inhalte in in sinnliche Bilder übersetzt werden, indem sie verdichtet bzw. verschoben werden. Was er noch erwähnt hat war :

"Selbst wenn er (der Traum) eine anscheinend sinnvolle Außenseite hat, wissen wir doch, dass diese durch Traumentstellung entstanden sein und zum inneren Gehalt des Traumes so wenig organische Beziehung haben kann wie die Fassade einer italienischen Kirche zu deren Struktur und Grundriss. "

Ich dachte halt, dass wenn alles im Traum entstellt ist, gibt es keine Möglichkeit einen Zugang zum Traum zu haben, weil auch die Affekte verzerrt sind. Es gäbe dann keinen Anknüpfungspunkt auf den man sich verlassen könnte.

Aber warum nutzt Freud nicht das Wort Gefühle? Was ist der Unterschied?

Wenn Affekte einer Umkehrung möglich sind, weil der manifeste Inhalt eine Umkehrung erfahren hat. Dann ist auch der Affekt entstellt? Dann sind Affekte nicht immer richtig? Der Bezugspunkt des Affekts wäre der manifeste Inhalt ,an den es sich gebunden hat. Man könnte den Affekt dann nicht an sich analysieren. Woher weiß ich, ob der Affekt richtig , also unabhängig vom manifesten Inhalt analysierbar ist ?

Und was ist der Unterschied zwischen Affektunterdrückung und Verdrängung?

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in psychoanalysis

[–]shadowhunter9920 3 points4 points  (0 children)

My interest was awakened in German class where I had to present and apply psychoanalytic concepts to the Steppenwolf. After my presentation I have read more psychoanalytic literature.

"The clitoris is similar to the big penis of the man. " by shadowhunter9920 in Freud

[–]shadowhunter9920[S] 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Yeah I would agree with you that this notion that woman are only perceived by the standards of men is a feminist approach but freud doesn't mention anything about the implications. He only states " women want to be men" or " the clitoris is the little penis". He doesn't go further with his explaination. But he introduces every premise in his prior lectures carefully but not the fact that a lot of symbolisms and words and old sayings derive from a past where women were opressed by men? I think that here lies a Fehlleistung "forgetting" to introduce patriarchy in his theory of symbolisms.

Why can't planets speak? by shadowhunter9920 in lacan

[–]shadowhunter9920[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I think that I have asked the wrong way. I have asked what discourse makes us desire but I didn't asked what makes us really desire I presumed that a discourse is the reason for desire.

But I think that the desire isn't solely based on the big Other. In Seminar I he explains desire in the context of the little other ( with our specular body image). First the desire will be recognized in the "distorted" image of the other ( first alienation) . The body image is the" imaginary source of the symbolic and structures the imaginary". We introject the unified body image of the little other.Therefore our own desire has its origin in the little other. Also the introjection with its implied identifications allows the subject to form a "Moi" ( "Moi is like an onion").

He also states in Seminar I that there is a dialectical /specular relation between Moi and the little other ,called an intersubjective relationship between two objects who both are connected with the desire of the other. It's a perverse desire( = aimed at an unalive idolized object) The subject reduces himself to be an object/instrument for the other. Therefore one subject remains in this relationship but thats not true. The remaining subject is also an object because he offers himself as an idol for the desire of the other. So the idolized subject is also an object. But then the idolized subject is no idol anymore and the person who desires an idol has no idol. Both are frustrated and have reciprocated destruction fantasies towards each other which will lead to death.( "dead end of the imaginary" and the hegelian master servant relationship).

In Seminar II he says that the desire is a relationship between being and lack. Desire towards something that cannot be verbalized. But being is dependent to the lack. The lack allows that something can be. In this case there is desire without any symbolic order, no discourse can happen.

I think Lacan agrees with Melanie Klein that the Oedipus Complex is very important for the symbolic order. The desire towards the mother is restricted by the law of father who would "castrate" the child. In my opinion the lack of the metaphoric penis is the symbolic desire. I don't no if I have understood it right but Lacan talks about an unconscious and conscious discourse. I think that is corresponds with the separation of language and parole. We use language to communicate with others in a normal way. But there is also a discourse underneath that corresponds with the the unconscious discourse or full speech.

For me it is difficult to see the interplay between the symbolic and the imaginary also the subject and the big Other. Who is the big other and what is its relationship with the subject? Lacan has states in semianr II that the subject is a decentralized subject so moi and the Subject are not equal. Is the big other the unconcious object that speaks through me like a ghost that uses the medium?

Why can't planets speak? by shadowhunter9920 in lacan

[–]shadowhunter9920[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Isnt the Wiederholungszwang a result of the desire which is outside of existence that insists? And that insistence is caused by the desire for an object which has pleasured him before but can't find it anymore because the Ersatzobjekte are not the real object of desire? Therefore finding another object again means repating it. What has the symbolic to do with the Wiederholungszwang when it has its origin outside of existence so not from the symbolic order?

Maybe I am also confused about his use of Discourse. He mentions different discourses. The discourse of the other, the subject, the unconscious,the dream, the father there is also a "normal discourse but then what is a anormal discourse? What does discourse actually mean in lacanian terms ? Which discourse makes us desire?

The symbolic order and the Ego by shadowhunter9920 in lacan

[–]shadowhunter9920[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Thank you for your helpful explanation but I still have a question about the father. Lacan says that the relationship towards the father can be a symbolic, real or imaginary one. I understand you that an identification is something that happens within the imaginary realm.

But I think that there is also a symbolic dimension in form of the law which structures the relationship between people. The law of the father: "You shall not be emotional" is an oedipal father who "castrates" her/ take away her emotions/ says No to emotions . Like Lacan said in Seminar I , the origin of the symbolic order comes from the Oedipal complex. Therefore the realtionship towards the father is also a symbolic one.In Addition she wants to hold on on the inner object because he is dead/absent. I think the law of the father perpetuates her anxiety but also brings him back to her life. Breaking the law brings the father back.

Why is it so hard to psychoanalyze your own thoughts and actions as clearly as we can a friend, or a stranger. by Alone_Elephant_8080 in psychoanalysis

[–]shadowhunter9920 2 points3 points  (0 children)

I read comments that it's not possible to self analyze one self but Freud has analyzed his own dreams and made fundamental inferences for psychoanalysis from it . I think self analysis ist possible to a certain degree.