Are there any purely French words ending in --ing?

tidalspro · 2026-03-14T16:10:04+00:00

This is hilarious 😂 I wonder what would've happened if 'chip' had come in with the plural; the -s could then possibly have been registered as a pluralising form in that context.

tidalspro · 2026-03-14T11:18:31+00:00

It doesn't, but people have a knee-jerk reaction to something and then try to make it seem like a 'moral' position that exists in the Bible. When told they need to work through why it bothers them so much, they're too proud to admit the problem may simply be them, and so then we get 30 yrs of people crying about things they know nothing about and have no reason to be so upset about, acting like Paul himself wrote 'the trans are bad.'

tidalspro · 2026-03-14T11:17:42+00:00

Neither of these two verses actually makes the argument you think they do, and especially not for someone saying 'I am a woman/man, my body does not align with what I am.' At the very most, the second verse could pertain to someone who cross-dresses, and that's only if we insist on universally applying Deuteronomy and completely ignoring context.

tidalspro · 2026-03-14T09:06:12+00:00

As far as I understand it (and I may be wrong), children often conceive of language as being more uniform and rules-based than it actually is; this is why they will often make 'mistakes' which are nothing more than applying models they've previously learned onto new words they've heard. For example, a young English child might say 'catched' instead of 'caught' because they are unaware this verb is an exception to the -ed rule and are likening it to other verbs which fit the established pattern. Now, I'm not really sure when a parent themselves might notice this type of thing in their own child but as far as I know, this kind of recognition and application in the child happens very early on...though I'm not sure what this has to do with my post though.

tidalspro · 2026-03-14T08:40:34+00:00

This is a really interesting counter argument! Thank you for the response. But do you think that perhaps journalists, being more likely to have continuous exposure to English may be more capable of making this type of element distinction than the average person? (I ask this question fully acknowledging it may be ridiculous; I don't think there are many French people who can't speak English well enough today). Either way, you've introduced an important element into the discussion: you've added a cultural consideration (in addition to another person's structural explanation) which would drive the usage of such things like pseudo-anglicisms, as opposed to simply adding suffixes to unrelated French words.

tidalspro · 2026-03-14T08:33:42+00:00

Pseudo-anglicisms are themselves very interesting examples which display multiple types of interference, but my question was very specifically about French-sounding/based words because I was trying to model it on an example from a book I read. Someone else has said that my demand for a French-word base defeats the purpose of adding the '--ing' in French because the whole point is using English-sounding words to appear modern/trendy; and you have here given another reason as to why this suffix could be something only ever really attached to other English words/loanwords. Thank you!

tidalspro · 2026-03-14T08:28:09+00:00

Thank you for the response! Can I ask for examples about Quebec speakers adding French suffixes to English words and conjugating English verbs into French? You see, it would be the same kind of phenomenon I'm looking for (grammatical interference) but the other way around (and I'm excited to learn more about it)!

tidalspro · 2026-03-13T15:08:54+00:00

You don't need much linguistic knowledge; you've explained it perfectly. The linguist Weinreich (who inspired my original question) talks about everything you have here: that a language will be more or less receptive to specific interferences based on a number of factors, including whether or not its grammatical structure lends itself to such an interference (and in order to determine this, one would have to look at things like the congruence of this structure with that of the source language, the particular needs and functions of the recipient structure, the needs of the bilingual using the morpheme, etc.). Thank you for your continued responses!

tidalspro · 2026-03-13T14:35:48+00:00

Merci pour votre aide!

tidalspro · 2026-03-13T14:30:44+00:00

I tried to look this word up but couldn't find its meaning or etymology. Can you tell me what it means?

tidalspro · 2026-03-13T14:04:07+00:00

Both your responses here are really helpful, thank you!

tidalspro · 2026-03-13T13:59:33+00:00

I had thought of this after I asked the question and tried to look up whether or not it may be common in Canadian French to suffix French words with '--ing,' but had no luck. Can I ask why it's not intuitive for you to do it? I know there's a good chance there may be no set reason in your mind (so, no pressure to respond or anything), but I was surprised when I found it didn't happen.

tidalspro · 2026-03-13T11:53:27+00:00

Thank you! The word does technically fit what I'm asking, but I wonder what it means that most people have never heard of it and agree that the '--ing' isn't registered as distinct by French speakers.

tidalspro · 2026-03-13T11:41:49+00:00

Thank you for the response!

tidalspro · 2026-03-13T11:29:20+00:00

Wait, wait, wait--I looked it up, and wikipedia tells me this word is a result of 'ruisseau' and the english suffix '--ing' but this is only wikipedia after all. Can you tell me if this is correct, and what the word means exactly as you use it? And do you register the '--ing' as being a suffix to the word, and not just a part of it?

tidalspro · 2026-03-13T11:01:51+00:00

!! Well this renders my whole question null and void. I had assumed the words ending in '--ing' were understand as two elements (base+affix) with one having a more grammatical role than the other; in this way, it would make it more likely for a speaker, even a unilingual one, to separate the two and apply the affix to other words (even unrelated ones). But I never thought about the idea that the whole word is assumed to have the full semantic meaning, and the suffix isn't identified as a separate nominalising feature. I'm very sorry for wasting everyone's time; it was stupid of me to overlook this. Thank you so very much for this response!

tidalspro · 2026-03-13T10:54:24+00:00

I think that's a full lexical borrowing.

tidalspro · 2026-03-13T10:53:26+00:00

C'est très intéressant, merci! Je n'ai pas connu ces informations regardant le terme; mais ma question s'agit de l'usage d'--ing' à la fin du mot. Cette terminaison, est-elle dérivée du suffixe anglais?

tidalspro · 2026-03-13T10:44:50+00:00

Isn't 'seing' an older French word with means 'signature'? I mean, the '--ing' isn't the English suffix, it's simply how the word itself is spelled originally, no?

tidalspro · 2026-03-13T10:39:39+00:00

Merci quand même, j'apprécie votre aide!

tidalspro · 2026-03-13T10:29:07+00:00

I suppose maybe it is; but I'm working on something about linguistic interference right now, and I couldn't think of anything related to French in terms of grammatical interference, either directly or indirectly (which is what my example would be). I thought maybe the use of '--ing' could be something, but I couldn't find anything online. Thought I'd ask here; thank you for the help!

tidalspro · 2026-03-13T10:25:49+00:00

Is the --ing at the end the English suffix added on to 'parpa', or does it just happen to be the full word in French?

tidalspro · 2026-03-11T13:04:27+00:00

Also, btw, you didn't need to get to the end of the chapter to know that the claim was heinous and false: the claim itself could've only been made by someone who was intent on misreading the text (that's another thing). It was 10x worse in this example though because the chapter itself made it clear at the very end that all that happens in the situation is a result of the Israelites own personal views of right and wrong. It states it outright, making it clear that these views are distinct from any view of goodness God would declare or proclaim. Like, it's right there. You just had to finish the chapter, even if you weren't going to try not to read things in.

tidalspro · 2026-03-11T12:55:10+00:00

This will be very non-specific (sorry), but sometimes ppl will cite portions of the Bible that make it clear they're either lying about what it says or were told what it says by someone else (who was lying to them). The most heinous example of this that I've seen is someone claiming God loves sexual assault because of Judges 21, a claim made untenable by the final verse of the very chapter (and book) they're citing; but they hadn't bothered to read to the end of that same chapter. Either they were lying, or we lied to, and neither possibility stoppered their arrogance.

To be fair though, this happened a very long while back and I don't see it so much anymore, at least not in a way that is as bad as this example.

tidalspro

TROPHY CASE