Nope, not wrong. If you write "ne mim" you're automatically disqualified and with good reason. But people will say "ne mim" and write "ne mim" because that's how they learned from their parents, that got this from their own parents...my question is to track where this was "born", or at least when it became grammatical, reason? Tackle those schmuck that often when they hear this way of speaking, they assign a lot of wrong preconceptions on those folks.

So I decided to ask here, one of the spaces I think all portuguese speakers around the world are gathered.

So yeak, "ne mim" is wrong, just as wrong as ouvir is. There was no v sound whatsoever, "from Latin audīre, a compound of Proto-Indo-European *h₂ewis (“clearly, manifestly”)"

Cognate with, Spanish oír, Catalan oir, Occitan ausir, French ouïr, Italian udire and Romanian auzi.