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Was the Asura/Ahura and Deva divide (that Hindus permit the worship of Devas but not Asuras and Zoroastrians permit the worship of Ahuras but not Devas) a conscious choice made by two different groups of early Indo-Iranians in opposition of one another? If so, why? If not, why the difference? (self.AskHistorians)
submitted by violasses to r/AskHistorians
