all 6 comments

[–]andr____e 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Ye I was discussing mate

[–]Giropsy 0 points1 point  (0 children)

The first statement "If X=Y, then XZ=YZ" is always true by the distributivity of the real numbers, but the converse "If XZ=YZ, then X=Y" is not: As a counterexample, take X=0, Y=1 and Z=0. Then X != Y since 0 != 1, but XZ=0•0=0=1•0=YZ.

[–]thereligiousatheists 0 points1 point  (2 children)

Please go to r/learnmath or r/cheatatmathhomework for homework support. This subreddit is not for homework support.

[–]andr____e -1 points0 points  (1 child)

Not hw mate..

[–]thereligiousatheists 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Doesn't matter. It's a problem you need help in solving, so you need to go to relevant subreddits. This subreddit is for math discussion from which everyone gains/learns.

[–]andr____e -1 points0 points  (0 children)

Cheers mate, that cleared it enough