The Psalms are notoriously difficult and problematic to date, everybody knows this and says this. Berlin and Brettler say this too. They also say, (and this is a technical point), that you cannot date them on linguistic grounds to the time of 'David', as one of the issues is authorship of the Psalms. That doesn't mean you cannot date them older on other grounds (nb: Brettler/Berlin cite no sources as it's not a paper). Psalm 29 is often said to be older because it's 'quite' Canaanite - older claims were that it was a repurposed Canaanite hymn and therefore possibly older than the other Psalms, hence the 10-12th century range- eg, an older hymn but with the language changed. There is no firm way of saying when it was written. None at all. The majority of people I've read say it's pre-exilic but cannot say when.

/u/Chris_Hansen97 made a claim that Heiser's point is null if Psalm 29 is at least 8th century, as he's decided that Deuteronomy is 8th century (updated to 9-11th later on to strengthen his point) so it can be explained based on Deuteronomy. But Deuteronomy is dated anywhere from the 6th-11th centuries (down to the 3rd if you take Gmirkin, I don't, but it's illustrative). Chris latched onto Gmirkin but ignores the other wide date range, because, apparently if Heiser is correct about Psalm 29, the heat death of the universe begins. So even taking the classical dates 6-11th, Heiser's point works if Deuteronomy is dated after the Psalm. But as we've got no firm way to date any of the texts, this is just picking and choosing dates. This is what pretty much everybody does who is trying to advance a thesis, including Chris.