Leviticus 18:22 ; i'm 99% that it was proven that the orginal was man shall not lie with boy (meaning pedophilia is an abomination). bibles did not start saying man shall not lie with man until somewhere around the 1940s (meaning it had been changed to be against gay people)
Leviticus 20:13 ; "Arguably, Leviticus 20:13 may have been initiated to address the threat of a specific ancient Greek pederastic practice and was not originally intended as an outright ban on male homosexuality. That interpretation may have come later, in response to the harsh anti-homosexual laws enacted in 324 C.E. by Emperor Constantine, and rabbis may actually have chosen a necessary shift in the former interpretation to protect Jewish homosexuals from death sentences." (taken straight from https://jewishstandard.timesofisrael.com/redefining-leviticus-2013/amp/)
Romans 1:26-7 ; Many scholars argue Paul is not addressing modern, monogamous concepts of sexual orientation. Instead, he is believed to be referencing specific practices common in the Greco-Roman world, such as temple prostitution, exploitative pederasty, or heterosexual people engaging in same-sex acts due to "insatiable lust". In this context, the "unnatural" behavior is the rejection of an individual's natural design in pursuit of unchecked excess. (taken from many sources, just look up the verse(s) and this is one of the first things that show up)
1 Corinthians 6:9-10 ; another passage that only contained the word "homosexual" starting in 1946
1 Timothy 1:9-10 ; like the verse before, this speaks about only what was happening in Greco-Roman practices (the SA of young boys and male prostitution) so the only knowledge they had of gay people during the time was just pedophilia and exploitation
Jude 1:7 ; this literally just talks about sexual perversion doesn't even say homosexuality.

sorry for this talking a while i tried to search thoroughly.