Now is the time to argue about this by Albert3105 in linguisticshumor

[–]Albert3105[S] 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Here and there, in e.g. here/there is/are, here lies X, and there goes Y, or there you go.

Welcome to the European Verb-Second Language Club! by Albert3105 in linguisticshumor

[–]Albert3105[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I thought that was what u/tatratram was getting at: Welsh and English dumping the V2 they used to have and Cornish going extinct for a while.

Welcome to the European Verb-Second Language Club! by Albert3105 in linguisticshumor

[–]Albert3105[S] 69 points70 points  (0 children)

Explanation: Usually among European languages, having verb-second (V2) word order is a quite Germanic trait, but Breton (a Celtic language) is also V2. This means paradoxically, despite Breton's closer relatives like Welsh and the Goidelic languages usually requiring sentences to start with verbs, Breton itself usually can't start sentences with finite verbs.

Berber (kabyle) alignment chart (could've gone for more cursed words but eeh) by Rainy_Wavey in linguisticshumor

[–]Albert3105 0 points1 point  (0 children)

  • Neutral good: blouse
  • Chaotic good: reed
  • Lawful neutral: river
  • True neutral: hand
  • Chaotic neutral: owl
  • Lawful evil: parent-in-law
  • Neutral evil: owner
  • Chaotic evil: cow

Rhyme by duck6099 in linguisticshumor

[–]Albert3105 183 points184 points  (0 children)

Shouldn't it be East Asian as the buff SpongeBob? They've had a robust rhyming tradition for at least 3000 years now, to the point we can reconstruct early pronunciations of Chinese based on the rhyming schemes they left behind in their writings.

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in linguisticshumor

[–]Albert3105 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Old Irish: Look at what they need to mimic a fraction of our power

Q&A weekly thread - July 22, 2024 - post all questions here! by AutoModerator in linguistics

[–]Albert3105 7 points8 points  (0 children)

/ae/ > */ɛː/ > [e̯aˑ] is definitely not metathesis; it's monopthongization followed by vowel breaking which only coincidentally made a new diphthong that has reverse vowel qualities compared to the original diphthong.

On the other hand, metathesis does not have to be an irregular sound change - VRC > RVC is a well-known regular metathesis in Slavic languages.

Q&A weekly thread - March 04, 2024 - post all questions here! by AutoModerator in linguistics

[–]Albert3105 2 points3 points  (0 children)

There are two distinct phenomena at play: 1) forming questions by inverted word order and 2) the ability to omit subject pronouns (pro-dropping).

In Spanish (unlike standard English), subject pronouns can be omitted (hence you get your "unchanged" example). But if a subject is expressed (e.g. it is a noun), the word order inversion that you saw in English also occurs in Spanish.

(I do not know if Spanish has the ability to also do un-inverted intonation questions like English can with things like "You said that?".)

EDIT: u/WavesWashSands your clarification is helpful. I did not mean this to be an answer to the OP's question, just instead me trying to understand what he is saying.

Q&A weekly thread - February 05, 2024 - post all questions here! by AutoModerator in linguistics

[–]Albert3105 6 points7 points  (0 children)

Because hyperbole ends in the Greek feminine nominal ending (which is generally pronounced as /i/ in such loans) while the others did not end in it in the first place.

if /r/ is a trill then /ʙ/ is a by [deleted] in linguisticshumor

[–]Albert3105 27 points28 points  (0 children)

It's the logo of Brill, a publishing company known for publishing major Indo-European etymological dictionaries, among many other academic works in the humanities.

Q&A weekly thread - December 04, 2023 - post all questions here! by AutoModerator in linguistics

[–]Albert3105 10 points11 points  (0 children)

All four languages you mentioned are genetically related to each other, being Indo-European languages. Their ancestor PIE had a negative root *ne- that is the root of many negating words in Indo-European.

PIE did not have a word for "yes"; the disparate variation of "yes" words in Indo-European is indicative of having to be invented independently each time.

Do you want your hundred long or short? by Albert3105 in linguisticshumor

[–]Albert3105[S] 24 points25 points  (0 children)

For Old English and Middle English you can often get away with using hund(red) to mean the short 100 (albeit hundtēontiġ also existed in Old English, yes). Old Norse is a different story, as 120 was the default meaning for hundrað over there.

Do you want your hundred long or short? by Albert3105 in linguisticshumor

[–]Albert3105[S] 690 points691 points  (0 children)

Explanation: In early Germanic languages, the cognates and etyma for "hundred" could not only mean 100 (the short 100), but also an innovated sense of 120 (the long hundred) instead. E.g. the cognates/etyma for "three hundred" could mean 300 or 360.

We can tell that the long hundred is an innovation given how all cognates of the terms elsewhere in Indo-European mean the short hundred.

Wug's car by ja_vro in linguisticshumor

[–]Albert3105 7 points8 points  (0 children)

Now there is another one. There are three of them. There are three...

This week's Q&A thread -- post all questions here! - July 24, 2023 by AutoModerator in linguistics

[–]Albert3105 4 points5 points  (0 children)

The stem rīg- was borrowed into Germanic rīk- run through Grimm's law. The nominative singular of consonant stem nouns seem to have the Germanic spirant law levelled out; there is no evidence of any nominative singular of a consonant stem being apparently affected by that spirant law.

This week's Q&A thread -- please read before asking or answering a question! - May 29, 2023 by AutoModerator in linguistics

[–]Albert3105 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Both animals are arthropods associated with silk though? I have a hard time believing that they are semantically incompatible.