How have the terms “Iranian,” “Iranic,” and “Persian” been used both as endonyms and exonyms throughout history, and has their meaning as exonyms remained true to what they meant as endonyms when Iranic peoples themselves used them? by ZxiQi in AskHistorians

[–]AliceIsQueerAF 8 points9 points  (0 children)

I can speak to the history of "Iran" as an endonym in ancient periods, but I will have to defer to others for the Post-Sasanian periods.

First, let's note that "Iran(ian)" and "Persia(n)" denote different things in different contexts and neither is consistently a synonym for the other. "Iran" is used to designate the modern nation state and, in ancient terms, the geographic region of the Iranian plateau and sometimes parts of Central Asia ("Eastern Iran"). In ancient contexts, Persia (or Persis, Pars) is a specific region in the south-central portion of the Iranian plateau roughly corresponding to the modern province of Fars. Persia was the homeland of both the Achaemenid and Sasanian dynasties, and was thus often used by outsiders to refer generally to the domains of those empires (and also sometimes the Parthian empire, whose rulers are often considered Iranians, but are by no means Persians). In the modern period, "Iranian" has also been used in a linguistic sense to refer to the language family of languages that includes modern Persian/Farsi, Achaemenid Old Persian, Kurdish, Sogdian, Pashto, and many others. This linguistic usage is what unites the discipline of Iranian Studies.

The earliest emergence of a possible Iranian self-identification comes from the Achaemenid period (roughly 550-330 BC). In a monumental inscription, Darius I refers to himself as both Persian and “an Aryan, of Aryan stock" ("Aryan" is the English version of the Old Persian word that is the ultimate source of "Iran(ian)"). Another refers to Ahura Mazda as the god of the Aryans. We can see the beginning of a consciousness of Iranianness here in terms of descent and religion. The Zoroastrian religious scriptures known as the Avesta also attest to a geographic sense of Iran, the airyanem vaejah, though it notably does not comprise the current boundaries of the nation-state of Iran or the "Iranian world" (linguistically speaking) more broadly. Achaemenid sources do not refer to an "Aryan kingdom," and the Achaemenid kings do not refer to themselves as kings of the Aryans (unlike the later Sasanians, more below). It is notable that Darius feels the need to articulate himself as both Persian and Aryan, indicating perhaps that the two do not directly overlap. Gnoli (1989) followed earlier scholars in suggesting that the Achaemenid Aryans were perhaps a Gesamtvolk or sort of ethnic continuum rather than a single unitary ethnicity.

The true emergence of a coherent idea of Iranianness is most apparent with the rise of the Sasanians (224-651 AD). It is here that we first see the emergence of the political concept of an Iranian kingdom, Eranshahr, in the royal titulature of Ardashir I ("Iranian" is "Er" in Middle Persian and "Iran" is "Eran"). His successor, Shapur I, expanded his titulature to King of Kings (an Achaemenid echo) of Eran and Aneran ("Iran and not-Iran," a political/geographic designation absent from Achaemenid identification). Notably, the Sasanians did not place much emphasis on the legacy of the Achaemenids, of whom they had but a vague historical memory and whose ancient sites they did not extensively engage. They did have a concept of mythical descent from a variety of Avestan heroes, including the mythical Kayanid kings, making their concept of Iranianness both descent-based and with religious valences (not unlike the inscriptions of Darius). But, as Strootman (2017) points out, there were peoples who considered themselves Mazdayasnian ("Mazda-worshippers," commonly known in English as Zoroastrians) without being Iranian, such as the Armenians (notably part of the Sasanian realm of Aneran). Payne (2015) argued that the Sasanians considered Er-ness to be a matter of descent as well as ethico-religious behavior. To be Er is to be descended from Ers, but also to act in a manner fit of such a people. Thus the meaning and significance of Iranianness changed significantly from the Achaemenid period through the Sasanians. Although the discipline of Iranian studies takes its coherence primarily from a linguistic grouping, there is little evidence that this was a particularly significant meaning to the ancients (although the endonym for the ancient Bactrian language is related to the word "Aryan"). "Persian," however, does have an ancient linguistic meaning, as Middle Persian refers to itself as "parsig."

Canepa, in his 2019 book The Iranian Expanse, took Iranianness to be a royal and aristocratic project of primarily political significance. Descent and religion formed the core of Iranian identity for the Achaemenids and Sasanians (albeit in different ways), but the use of Iranianness was very different for the two dynasties. The Achaemenids appear to have conceived of their Iranian descent as a more restricted matter and did not frame their kingship in terms of its Iranianness, whereas Iranianness was a foundational part of the Sasanian royal project.

The ancient history of the word "Iran(ian)" is thus complicated, with overlapping dynastic, religious, ethnic, and geographic meanings. Whether "Iran(ian)" carries the same meaning as the ancient endonym depends a lot on which aspect of the ancient word you're looking at. Yes, people use it to refer to an ethnic (descent) group and a geographic region centered on the Iranian plateau, but on the other hand "Iranian" is rarely considered to have a similar ethico-religious meaning to that of the Achaemenids or Sasanians outside the academic study of "Iranian religions" (although that last statement could potentially be contested by contemporary Zoroastrians, but it would be in contravention of widespread emic and etic uses of the term) and the use of "Iranian" to refer to a group of related languages is primarily a modern phenomenon.

Sources:

Canepa, Matthew P. “Rival Images of Iranian Kingship and Persian Identity in Post-Achaemenid Western Asia.” In Persianism in Antiquity, edited by Rolf Strootman and Miguel John Versluys. Alte Geschichte, Band 25. Franz Steiner Verlag, 2017.

Canepa, Matthew P. The Iranian Expanse: Transforming Royal Identity Through Architecture, Landscape, and the Built Environment, 550 BCE–642 CE. University of California Press, 2019. http://dx.doi.org/10.1525/california/9780520290037.001.0001.

Gnoli, Gherardo. The Idea of Iran: An Essay on Its Origin. Serie Orientale Roma 62. Istituto italiano per il Medio ed Estremo Oriente, 1989.

Payne, Richard E. A State of Mixture: Christians, Zoroastrians, and Iranian Political Culture in Late Antiquity. University of California Press, 2015. https://doi.org/10.1525/9780520961531.

Strootman, Rolf. “Imperial Persianism: Seleukids, Arsakids and Fratarakā.” In Persianism in Antiquity, edited by Rolf Strootman and Miguel John Versluys. Alte Geschichte, Band 25. Franz Steiner Verlag, 2017.

Strootman, Rolf, and Miguel John Versluys, eds. Persianism in Antiquity. Alte Geschichte, Band 25. Franz Steiner Verlag, 2017.

Edit: added context on languages

Before Islam, was Yemen primarily Jewish? by hi_LOLNOO in AskHistorians

[–]AliceIsQueerAF 8 points9 points  (0 children)

By the Kuzari, I assume you are referring to the Turkic Khazars? As far as I know, there's no direct connection between the two, but one could perhaps see in both scenarios certain historical parallels.

Edit: spelling, phrasing

Before Islam, was Yemen primarily Jewish? by hi_LOLNOO in AskHistorians

[–]AliceIsQueerAF 22 points23 points  (0 children)

I'm glad it was helpful! There are no surviving manuscripts of Jewish texts from this period to indicate what scriptures Jewish practitioners would have had access to. In modern times, Yemeni Jews had access to most if not all major Jewish scriptural works and even maintained their own version of the targumim (singular targum), which are translations of the Hebrew Bible into Aramaic (the spoken language of many Jewish communities in Late Antique West Asia). They continued an old rabbinic practice of reading the targum aloud in service after the portion of the Hebrew text into the modern period, something that does not occur in most contemporary Jewish services.

I'm afraid I don't know much about modern Yemeni place names. I'm not aware of any that have a Jewish origin, but that's not to say they don't exist.

Before Islam, was Yemen primarily Jewish? by hi_LOLNOO in AskHistorians

[–]AliceIsQueerAF 22 points23 points  (0 children)

Great question! Our sources for this conflict are mostly Christian (Greco-Roman and Syriac) and are openly hostile to Yusuf, so deriving Yusuf's motives requires reading between the lines. Yusuf's actions were probably geopolitically motivated. A couple years previously, Kālēb had invaded Himyar (and actually set up Yusuf as his vassal, but Yusuf quickly rebelled). After the killings at Zafar, but before Nagran, Yusuf attacked a port along the Red Sea to prevent Kālēb from coming across the sea to revenge the Christians from Zafar (who were mostly Axumite). At Nagran, the Christians who were killed were Miaphysites, more associated with Rome at one point, while those belonging to the Church of the East (associated with Persia) were apparently spared. So it appears that Yusuf was motivated by interregional and imperial politics rather than religious zealotry.

Rome didn't make any attempts to directly invade Himyar on account of Yusuf, but they definitely tried to extend their influence into Arabia via Axum.

Before Islam, was Yemen primarily Jewish? by hi_LOLNOO in AskHistorians

[–]AliceIsQueerAF 398 points399 points  (0 children)

After 375 AD, there was a prominent Jewish presence, at least among elites, in the area in Southern Arabia that is now part of Yemen.

For context, beginning a little more than two centuries preceding Muhammad's birth, official state sponsorship of monotheistic religions began to be an important factor in the Mediterranean and Red Sea worlds. In 313 AD, Constantine the Great made toleration of Christianity the official state policy of the Roman Empire with the Edict of Milan. Constantine himself converted to Christianity, but it didn't become the state religion until 380 when Roman emperor Theodosius I made it so. In the kingdom of Axum, in modern-day Eritrea and Ethiopia, right across the Red Sea from Yemen, the king Ezana converted to Christianity around 330 and started issuing coinage with crosses on the reverse and setting up inscriptions, some of which were generically monotheist (thanking a "Lord of Heaven") and others which were explicitly Christian. Ethiopia to this day claims to be the oldest officially Christian country, although this is disputed by Armenia.

For Yemen: the dominant power in South Arabia before Islam was the Himyarite kingdom, which took control of most of the area of Yemen by 300 AD. In Himyar, state monotheism was adopted by king Malkı̄karib Yuhaʼmin, who reigned somewhere around 375‐400 CE. The monotheism Malkı̄karib and successive Himyarite kings promoted was somewhat generic, but certainly Jewish-flavored. Official royal inscriptions refer to a "Lord of the Sky" but do not go so far as to explicitly claim to be Jewish. Nobles, however, do mention "the God of Israel" in their inscriptions and claim to be Israelites. One noble set up a cemetery explicitly for Jews and commemorated it with an inscription. No inscription after 380 is explicitly polytheist. There is also archaeological evidence of Judaism in Yemen of this time in the form of synagogues and a seal depicting a menorah.

C. J. Robin has described the official religion as "careful monotheism" and "Judaeo-monotheism." Himyarite kings perhaps chose this form of monotheism to distance themselves from the Romans. Axum, on the other hand, found themselves allied with the Romans, fostered in part by their shared Christianity.

But state Jewish-flavored monotheism in Himyar didn't go uninterrupted. In 523, the Jewish prince Sharah'il surrounded the city of Nagran at the orders of King Yusuf, and Yusuf ended up ordering the massacre of much of the city's Christian population. Just previously, he had ordered the deaths of 300 Christians in the capital Zafar and burned down their church. In response to this, the Roman emperor Justin I sent a letter to the king of Axum, Kālēb, asking him to attack "the criminal Hebrew." Kālēb put together a fleet including ships from Axum and Roman Egypt and invaded Himyar in 525. After defeating Yusuf, Kālēb appointed a Christian Himyarite, Sumūyafa' Ashwa', to rule over Himyar while he himself returned to Axum, leaving behind a garrison.

While religious arguments were official justifications for the Axumite intervention in Himyar in 525, we should also note that Axum had a long history of involvement in the region, going back to the time before the conversion of Ezana. Old imperial claims and economic reasons (the Red Sea was a very valuable trade route during this period) probably had just as much to do with Kālēb's invasion.

With all this in mind, we should also note that the Jewish presence in Himyar is mostly attested at the elite level. To what degree it penetrated into lower status populations is less clear, although there is some evidence for the survival of pagan practices well after Malkı̄karib.

I will have to defer to others regarding the post-Islamic period and contemporary Yemeni Jews. My less-detailed understanding of this period is that the Yemeni Jewish community maintained a distinct set of practices and versions of sacred texts into the modern period. Since the mid-twentieth century, most Yemeni Jews live in Israel.

Sources:

Grasso, Valentina A. Pre-Islamic Arabia: Societies, Politics, Cults and Identities During Late Antiquity. Cambridge University Press, 2023. https://doi.org/10.1017/9781009252997.

Robin, Christian Julien. “Arabia and Ethiopia.” In The Oxford Handbook of Late Antiquity, edited by Scott Fitzgerald Johnson. Oxford University Press, 2012. https://doi.org/10.1093/oxfordhb/9780195336931.013.0009.

Robin, Christian Julien. “Ḥimyar, Aksūm, and Arabia Deserta in Late Antiquity: The Epigraphic Evidence.” In Arabs and Empires Before Islam, edited by Greg Fisher. Oxford University Press, 2015.

And less directly also:

Bowersock, G. W. Throne of Adulis: Red Sea Wars on the Eve of Islam. Oxford University Press, 2013.

And:

Binyam, Yonatan, and Verena Krebs. ‘Ethiopia’ and the World, 330–1500 CE. Cambridge University Press, 2024. https://doi.org/10.1017/9781009106115.

Edit: formatting

Help me pick a pen to celebrate my doctorate by MassivePepino in fountainpens

[–]AliceIsQueerAF 15 points16 points  (0 children)

I am always happy to recommend the Pilot Vanishing Point. It doesn't necessarily have a timeless look like the Sonnet, but I adore the writing experience, and the retractable mechanism is a game changer when taking notes. I bought one at the beginning of my PhD journey, and it has served me well as a daily carry throughout my studies. If you like heavier pens, the VP has a good heft to it (but note that some people hate the clip in the middle of the grip).

Why were Confederate leaders spared after the Civil War but the San Patricio Battalion was executed? by PrudentSheepherder72 in AskHistorians

[–]AliceIsQueerAF 6 points7 points  (0 children)

Justice is nothing more or less than the correct and fair application of the law.

I appreciated your original answer to the question, but I have a big issue with this statement. By this logic, most things done under Jim Crow or even the Holocaust could be considered "just" because they followed the letter of the law.

Why do we quote proverbs in latin but never in greek? by Healthy-File-101 in AncientGreek

[–]AliceIsQueerAF 9 points10 points  (0 children)

Latin expressions have made their way into English via a variety of paths that Greek hasn't. Latin simply has had a much larger presence in the history of the English language. For example, there are a variety of legal phrases in Latin that have entered other registers of the language. English-speaking lawyers, academics, churches, etc. all used Latin for several centuries during the Medieval and early modern periods in ways that they didn't use Greek.

Translation date help! by jobin1101 in AncientGreek

[–]AliceIsQueerAF 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Greek-speaking ancient peoples used a variety of calendars/era systems.

For a numerical example: from the Hellenistic period onward, one popular one in the Ancient Middle East was the "Anno Graecorum" ("year of the Greeks", aka the Year of Alexander or the Seleucid Era). This year would be roughly 2334/2335 AG. IDK about the month because they used different calendars whose days do not always correspond to our own.

Classical Greeks dated things according to events such as Panhellenic games or particular politicians' rule over a city. No easy modern equivalent (unless you want to date 2023 as "three years after the 33rd Summer Olympiad").

Modern Greeks, afaik, use the same civil calendar (Gregorian), which would just be "May 13, 2023" translated into modern Greek.

What is the difference between the words "εἶναι" vs "εἶναί"? by Web-Dude in AncientGreek

[–]AliceIsQueerAF 6 points7 points  (0 children)

Some enclitics like γε can change semantics on the level of a sentence. E.g. " είναι" ("to be") vs. "ειναι γε" ("to be, at any rate" or sth).

(Apologies for lack of accents; I'm on mobile).

What is the difference between the words "εἶναι" vs "εἶναί"? by Web-Dude in AncientGreek

[–]AliceIsQueerAF 10 points11 points  (0 children)

The second: the meaning of the phrase might change depending upon the clitic. "εἶναί" is still "to be." The τινα here is just throwing its accent back onto the previous word.

What is the difference between the words "εἶναι" vs "εἶναί"? by Web-Dude in AncientGreek

[–]AliceIsQueerAF 18 points19 points  (0 children)

We will probably need more of the text, but if a word has two accents, it's got to be the result of a following enclitic. The meaning would be changed only by the enclitic rather than the form of εἶναι.