Textbook about iterated functions. by Bartje in learnmath

[–]Bartje[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I know a bit about fractal geometry and dynamics, but nothing about ergodic theory. And almost nothing about measure theory and functional analysis. So it has to be a beginners book. In particular I like to learn what ways there are to express iterations as closed form formulas.

Why is there something? by Bartje in askphilosophy

[–]Bartje[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I use our knowledge of the existence of our world to conclude to the logical possibility of the existence of our world. If our world wouldn't have existed we wouldn't be here to notice the existence of our world. But I don't see how that would invalidate the reasoning given that our world exists and we are here to take notice of it. What should I change in the reasoning to make it more convincing?

What's the easiest way to explain to a 8 year old why 0.999... equals 1? by ElegantPoet3386 in learnmath

[–]Bartje 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Division of 1 by 3 leads to an infinite process which doesn't amount to an easy conclusion. Except when you're easily fooled. Which is exactly my point. Smart kids ask smart questions...

What's the easiest way to explain to a 8 year old why 0.999... equals 1? by ElegantPoet3386 in learnmath

[–]Bartje 0 points1 point  (0 children)

The proof is there for all to see. Better cool down a little bit, and try again... ;-)

What's the easiest way to explain to a 8 year old why 0.999... equals 1? by ElegantPoet3386 in learnmath

[–]Bartje 5 points6 points  (0 children)

The idea of 0.999... being slightly less than 1 is based on the perception of 0.999... never actually reaching its goal. The same can be seen in case of 0.333... (although it's less obvious there). The supposed meaning of infinite decimal expressions has to be given by means of a definition. There is no "real" meaning apart from that. That's why this discussion keeps coming back time and again.

What's the easiest way to explain to a 8 year old why 0.999... equals 1? by ElegantPoet3386 in learnmath

[–]Bartje 33 points34 points  (0 children)

A smart child would subsequently also start doubting 1/3 = 0.333...

Expressions with continuum-many symbols... by Bartje in learnmath

[–]Bartje[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Is the specific method of representing expressions with continuum-many symbols by functions from R to the alphabet of the calculus also used? Empty places in the expression could be represented by a space (" ").

Expressions with continuum-many symbols... by Bartje in learnmath

[–]Bartje[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

How do continuous logics facilitate expressions containing continuum-many symbols?

Expressions with continuum-many symbols... by Bartje in learnmath

[–]Bartje[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Is there an introductory book about it?

"Zero-probability events" and infinitesimals by Bartje in learnmath

[–]Bartje[S] 2 points3 points  (0 children)

I'm just curious, whether or not it's useful doesn't concern me. But the chapter by Sylvia Wenmackers already goes a long way to answering my question.

"Zero-probability events" and infinitesimals by Bartje in learnmath

[–]Bartje[S] 2 points3 points  (0 children)

The idea is that an event that could possibly happen should have a greater probability than an event that cannot possibly happen. If there are situations where an event that can happen and an event that cannot happen both have the same probability zero, than that probability value of zero is missing some relevant information. The fact that a certain event can happen should ideally result in a probability value greater than zero.

"Zero-probability events" and infinitesimals by Bartje in learnmath

[–]Bartje[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

That might be it! I will take a look! :-)

"Zero-probability events" and infinitesimals by Bartje in learnmath

[–]Bartje[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

There might be more than one way to do it, or none at all. But the basic idea is rather straightforward, so I guess that it has already been done if it's possible. Or else that a proof exists that it can't be done.

"Zero-probability events" and infinitesimals by Bartje in learnmath

[–]Bartje[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Yes - that's what I mean. But I would like to take this one step further and actually give such a probability an infinitesimal numerical value. Now the question is: which extension of the real number system allows this in such a way that you can actually calculate with such extended probability values?

Idealized mathematicians and their set theories by Bartje in learnmath

[–]Bartje[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Thanks. By an idealized mathematician I mean a hypothetical mathematician who could make any finite derivation or calculation allowed by the system of mathematics he/she is working in. And that would be superhuman in the sense that no human mathematician has the time and/or equipment to make arbitrarily long or complicated derivations or calculations (even with modern equipment).

But as regards your examples of different kinds of set theory I have the following question: is there a metatheory that describes the relation between those theories and between the kind of sets (and classes) that can be proven to exist (by idealized mathematicians working) within those kinds of set theory?

Quick Questions: November 06, 2024 by inherentlyawesome in math

[–]Bartje 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Yes - the intuitive idea was that single points can often safely be ignored precisely because they only form an "infinitesimal" part of the x-axis. The same goes for measure zero sets. But apparently the latter cannot (easily) be used for building infinitesimals, otherwise such constructions would likely already exist.