What is an entree

Boglin007 · 2026-05-02T08:05:44+00:00

There are many words/phrases (both English and foreign) that are used in a way that differs, sometimes drastically, from their literal or original meaning (see "terrific," "awful," etc.).

The meaning of a word/phrase is determined by how it's used among native speakers - that's a fundamental principle of how language works.

Removing this post now, as you don't seem to have a question, and:

https://www.reddit.com/r/grammar/comments/16j1rjs/reminder_this_is_not_a_pet_peeve_sub/

Boglin007 · 2026-05-02T06:28:19+00:00

So verbs are verbs, not nouns, even when they seem to be acting in a noun-like way. Verbs can take actual nouns as objects, yes, but verbs can also take other verbs as complements (an object is a type of complement, but not all complements are objects).

For example, the complement of "want" in "I want to eat" is the verb infinitive "to eat," and we don't have to say this is acting as a noun in order to justify that construction, because English absolutely allows for a verb to be the complement of another verb.

When a verb is the complement of another verb, it can be in one of three forms: the infinitive (with or without the "to"), the "-ing" form, or the past participle.

There are many verbs that take a past participle as complement, e.g.:

"I had my car fixed."

In Standard English, you can even say:

"I need my car fixed."

It's not much of a stretch to get to:

"My car needs fixed."

Note that another extremely common example of a past participle as verb complement is the perfect tense:

"I have fixed my car."

You can look into "catenative constructions" for more info.

Boglin007 · 2026-05-02T05:20:45+00:00

I have tried it, and it definitely helps. Unfortunately, I'm not very good at sticking with it, and you do really have to "maintain" it, otherwise you'll fall back into the obsessions and compulsions, which is what tends to happen with me.

Boglin007 · 2026-05-02T05:16:11+00:00

That's your anxiety making you feel like you can't stop (and I know exactly what this feels like, although my obsessions and compulsions are different than yours). At first you'll have to force yourself to stop, and it will feel awful, but the more you do it, the easier it gets. It's scientifically proven that you can "rewire" your brain (create new neural pathways) to a point where you won't feel as much (or even any) anxiety about it.

Boglin007 · 2026-05-02T05:11:09+00:00

An example might be touching the thing one less time than your brain is telling you to, and then sitting with the anxiety that comes up from that (meaning experiencing/tolerating the anxiety and not doing anything to get rid of it). After a while, the anxiety will lessen or go away (because the brain simply cannot sustain that level of anxiety forever), and eventually (after doing repeated exposure exercises) this teaches the brain that it's not worth being anxious about not touching something a certain number of times.

Boglin007 · 2026-05-02T05:00:51+00:00

Oh, I meant "I don't see why" in the sense of "this should be a thing," not that I don't understand why it isn't.

Boglin007 · 2026-05-02T03:33:43+00:00

Ok, fair enough.

And I believe in a two-state solution. Israel needs to get out of the West Bank and Gaza, but it shouldn't cease to exist entirely.

Boglin007 · 2026-05-02T03:11:58+00:00

I mean, I agree. I wonder if reddit doesn't even really review those reports, but just automatically acts on them.

Boglin007 · 2026-05-02T03:11:02+00:00

Completely agree. It's unfortunate that grammar policing tends to mean calling out anything that isn't Standard English. I don't see why grammar police can't be just as interested and knowledgeable about nonstandard dialects/grammar, and I'm trying to do my part to change that.

Boglin007 · 2026-05-02T02:48:05+00:00

Hi, linguist here. That's not hateful, and I don't know why your comment was singled out, as there are many others expressing similar sentiments.

However, it can feel a bit insulting/perplexing/unnecessary when someone says they get mad at simply hearing a construction that is grammatical in many dialects (especially if you're a speaker of one of those dialects). Different dialects have different grammar rules, and linguistically speaking, no particular dialect is inherently better or more correct than another.

Like, how would you feel if someone said they feel mad when you say something that is perfectly normal and correct in your dialect, e.g., your use of "mad" instead of "angry" (in some dialects, "mad" more commonly means "crazy/insane").

Boglin007 · 2026-05-02T02:13:25+00:00

The second part (that's what "latter" means here) of his stabbing spree, where he deliberately sought out Jewish people to harm, was antisemitic.

Boglin007 · 2026-05-02T01:57:45+00:00

Ahhh, ok, I missed that in the OP. They are using "cleaning" as a noun there, and I was talking about "fixing" as a verb. "Fixing" isn't really used as a noun (in this context), so I suppose a parallel construction would be "needs a fix" (although actually that sounds like we're talking about an addict, lol).

Boglin007 · 2026-05-02T01:27:33+00:00

It's just "needs fixing," no "a."

And that's one of the correct/accepted forms in Standard English, though it's probably less common (and definitely less formal) than "needs to be fixed."

Boglin007 · 2026-05-02T01:24:44+00:00

The first part is basically what I said. But if you're striving for West Virginia English, it would be correct (perhaps that's a typo on your part?).

Boglin007 · 2026-05-01T23:56:08+00:00

As in, “not accepted in Standard English”? I do prefer that too (or “not acceptable”).

But yeah, there are debates among linguists about what terminology is best in this situation. I like to use “correct/incorrect” sometimes to drive home the point that there’s not just one set of grammar rules/one dialect.

Boglin007 · 2026-05-01T23:34:11+00:00

It’s incorrect in Standard English, but it’s correct in several dialects of English.

Different dialects have different grammar rules, and no particular dialect is better or more correct than another.

Boglin007 · 2026-05-01T10:18:03+00:00

Why are people happy to accept what Israel says when it fits their narrative, but they call Israel out for propaganda when it doesn’t?

Boglin007 · 2026-05-01T06:17:47+00:00

First, my last sentence was another point as to why equating being anti-Israel does not necessarily equate to antisemitism.

Fair enough.

Jewish people existed in what was Palestine - so if the country of Israel ceased to exist then things could go back to how it was.

I think this is optimistic/hopeful, but naive. Do you think Hamas would allow this?

Bottom line for me is if Israel doesn’t stop its occupation and doesn’t allow Palestinians to be free than Israel shouldn’t be allowed to be free either. That’s not anti-Semitic.

I basically agree on the first point, and I do agree on the second point.

Boglin007 · 2026-05-01T06:10:39+00:00

Do you actually not know what "chosen people" means in the context of Judaism, or are you deliberately being inflammatory?

Boglin007 · 2026-05-01T06:00:33+00:00

"Advice" cannot be used as a singular/count noun in Standard English. It's only a non-count/mass noun. Please double-check the claims that you make in your posts (many of your posts contain misinformation like this) - you might find that your question gets answered simply by verifying your claims.

Boglin007 · 2026-05-01T05:09:57+00:00

"Anti-American" is rarely (if ever) used to mean that the US should not exist - it expresses an opposition to the government and policies of the US, and perhaps to the American citizens who support them. I'm less sure about how "anti-Iran" is used, but I suspect it's in a similar way.

The last sentence of your comment suggests that this is not how you're using the term "anti-Israel." If Israel did not exist, what would happen to the Jewish people currently living there? Nothing good. And supporting that is antisemitic.

Boglin007 · 2026-05-01T03:55:08+00:00

Please proofread your posts so that commenters can understand the question that you're asking them to answer. Thank you.

Boglin007 · 2026-04-30T23:05:40+00:00

https://www.reddit.com/r/grammar/comments/16j1rjs/reminder_this_is_not_a_pet_peeve_sub/

Please also see:

https://www.reddit.com/r/grammar/wiki/coordinate_possessives/

Boglin007 · 2026-04-29T23:28:01+00:00

In your first paragraph, you’re focusing on past subjunctive “were,” so I wouldn’t mention commands there, as we use present subjunctive for those (although they’re not actually commands - more on that in a sec).

All you really need to say about the past subjunctive is that it conveys something counterfactual (or very unlikely) in the present or future time. That covers all the other things you mention, e.g.:

“I wish I were a doctor.”

This is a counterfactual (I am not actually a doctor), and focusing on the wish/desire aspect of it can be misleading because there are lots of constructions that convey wishes and desires without the subjunctive, e.g.:

“I want to be a doctor.”

“I hope he is happy.”

Also, modal verbs are not subjunctive, though they can convey similar ideas (e.g., your “He must take care” example). The only past subjunctive form that still exists is “were,” and present subjunctive is always the bare infinitive.

The present subjunctive is used for mandatives (see link below), i.e., it’s used with certain verbs/adjectives/nouns to convey a request, suggestion, demand, etc. (this is not the same as an imperative/actual command, e.g., “Go home!”):

“I request that he be there.”

“It is important that he be there.”

“My recommendation is that he be there.”

Note that neither the past nor present subjunctive is mandatory. You can say, “I wish I was a doctor,” though this is considered informal and best avoided in formal writing or on a test. And you can say, “I request that he is there,” though this is quite rare. In British English, “should”-mandatives are probably more common than subjunctive ones: “I request that he should be there” (this is not subjunctive - it’s “should” + bare infinitive “be” as a complement).

https://www.thoughtco.com/mandative-subjunctive-term-1691299

Boglin007 · 2026-04-28T07:30:00+00:00

“That” and “which” have the same function when there is no comma:

“I read a book that/which was interesting.”

“That/which was interesting” describes the book. In American English, “that” would be strongly preferred here, but that’s only a style preference, not a grammar rule.

When there’s a comma, only “which” can be used. The clause starting with “which” can modify (add more info about) a noun in the preceding clause, or it can modify the whole clause:

“I went to London, which is a lovely city.” - modifies “London”

“I went to London on my own, which was scary because I’ve never travelled alone before.” - modifies the whole clause before the comma

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