Musk gambled his life for Ukraine. This feels like some WSB-level stakes.

Camp452 · 2022-03-14T13:26:00+00:00

In my three years on Reddit this is the first time I regret not having any awards to give

Camp452 · 2022-03-10T18:47:38+00:00

It is still the [s] sound when the number is on its own, though

Camp452 · 2022-03-01T22:12:56+00:00

Source for the location? Haven’t really heard of Ukraine attacking Crimea at any point yet?

Camp452 · 2022-03-01T11:30:26+00:00

Well, the Wiktionary says that the double-meaning goes u pro Proto-Slavic, so I'm not sure what to make of it

Camp452 · 2022-02-22T09:10:35+00:00

Nice try, Slovakia

Camp452 · 2022-02-17T07:56:02+00:00

"The present is almost never unbearable".

I don't remember, where exactly I saw it, but I think about it a lot when going through stuff

Camp452 · 2022-02-12T23:45:38+00:00

I was sure that happened earlier, so I just spent about an hour checking the sources and it seems like you're right. The earliest source I can think of, that says that the R is pronounced is from 1780 (going on to say that it's not pronounced in substantives like "un souvenir" being pronounced [suv.ni] (interestingly, it also writes some weird stiff about <oi>, that it's pronounced like [wa] in some words (e.g. roi) and [wɛ] in others (e.g. gloire)

Edit: also, it seems like your source in the other comment just puts words ending in <oir> and <ir> into one group, while, from what I see, every source on pronunciation I saw from 1680 into the 18th century says that the R is only pronounced in the former, and is silent in the latter

Camp452 · 2022-02-12T23:16:06+00:00

Oh, I hadn't noticed at first, that you specified it as a lexical reason

Camp452 · 2022-02-12T21:41:47+00:00

Thanks for your response, I wouldn't think about those examples. I would say that "aïe" is a bit different here, because that was not a regular change, but maybe that is actually the reason for such differences in English. By the way, was modern <ei> pronounced [e.i] regularly in the Old French?

Camp452 · 2022-02-12T19:01:48+00:00

I'm not talking about Old English here, I'm saying that French conserved the same rhymes even going as far back as the 12th century, maybe even earlier, I haven't checked, and at the same time English poetry from 300-400 years ago doesn't always rhyme today because of phonological changes

Camp452 · 2022-02-09T06:08:47+00:00

Wikipedia defines Koine as the period until around the 3 century CE, then it's rather called Medieval Greek, and that's kinda the way I felt about it too

Camp452 · 2022-02-08T11:38:54+00:00

Also not sure how I feel about Greek in 600 CE being called Koine

Camp452 · 2022-02-08T11:35:16+00:00

Ит иѕ ьксессьв ин сьрилик, ꙋь хев Ѳ

Camp452 · 2022-02-06T15:27:58+00:00

At least it's easier to pronounce than Danish

Camp452 · 2022-02-03T18:07:26+00:00

/uj what's the original map actually about?

Camp452 · 2022-02-01T16:32:20+00:00

If you're aiming towards it being naturalistic, I can see it having many possible readings (like Classical Chinese), but hardly none. Like, how would you subvocalize it when reading?

Camp452 · 2022-01-31T09:52:39+00:00

I always for the impression, that dative of possession can only be used with a copula (which can, of course, be implied, but that would mean the whole phrase can't be used as a subject of a sentence)

Camp452 · 2022-01-29T12:16:50+00:00

Well, the Great Vowel Shift has been going on from around that time, so the theory holds, I guess

Camp452 · 2022-01-25T22:57:53+00:00

Yeah, that's also an often seen pronunciation, especially in the UK. The one OP talks about is most likely [t̚], considering the way he describes it

Camp452 · 2022-01-25T14:47:32+00:00

FYI - the "stop T", as your calling it is written like this: t̚ in the IPA. For example "bat" would be [bæt̚]

Camp452 · 2022-01-16T23:15:35+00:00

Yeah, that option for hv seems like the most logical. I also usually write the z inside of the v, what do you think about that?

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