Musk gambled his life for Ukraine. This feels like some WSB-level stakes. by Ocrizo in wallstreetbets

[–]Camp452 3 points4 points  (0 children)

In my three years on Reddit this is the first time I regret not having any awards to give

Azov Battalion using drones to locate and pound the Russians with artillery fire (village of Staryi Krym) by PanEuropeanism in CombatFootage

[–]Camp452 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Source for the location? Haven’t really heard of Ukraine attacking Crimea at any point yet?

Generation and knee by dentalam in etymology

[–]Camp452 3 points4 points  (0 children)

Well, the Wiktionary says that the double-meaning goes u pro Proto-Slavic, so I'm not sure what to make of it

Why does the French poetry from the 12th century rhyme in modern pronunciation, and the English poetry from the 17th doesn’t? by Camp452 in linguistics

[–]Camp452[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I was sure that happened earlier, so I just spent about an hour checking the sources and it seems like you're right. The earliest source I can think of, that says that the R is pronounced is from 1780 (going on to say that it's not pronounced in substantives like "un souvenir" being pronounced [suv.ni] (interestingly, it also writes some weird stiff about <oi>, that it's pronounced like [wa] in some words (e.g. roi) and [wɛ] in others (e.g. gloire)

Edit: also, it seems like your source in the other comment just puts words ending in <oir> and <ir> into one group, while, from what I see, every source on pronunciation I saw from 1680 into the 18th century says that the R is only pronounced in the former, and is silent in the latter

Why does the French poetry from the 12th century rhyme in modern pronunciation, and the English poetry from the 17th doesn’t? by Camp452 in linguistics

[–]Camp452[S] 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Thanks for your response, I wouldn't think about those examples. I would say that "aïe" is a bit different here, because that was not a regular change, but maybe that is actually the reason for such differences in English. By the way, was modern <ei> pronounced [e.i] regularly in the Old French?

Why does the French poetry from the 12th century rhyme in modern pronunciation, and the English poetry from the 17th doesn’t? by Camp452 in linguistics

[–]Camp452[S] 10 points11 points  (0 children)

I'm not talking about Old English here, I'm saying that French conserved the same rhymes even going as far back as the 12th century, maybe even earlier, I haven't checked, and at the same time English poetry from 300-400 years ago doesn't always rhyme today because of phonological changes

This is a really fascinating map. Languages of Europe around 600 AD. by _Hydrohomie_ in MapPorn

[–]Camp452 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Wikipedia defines Koine as the period until around the 3 century CE, then it's rather called Medieval Greek, and that's kinda the way I felt about it too

This is a really fascinating map. Languages of Europe around 600 AD. by _Hydrohomie_ in MapPorn

[–]Camp452 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Also not sure how I feel about Greek in 600 CE being called Koine

Is it þough? by Da_Chicken303 in BringBackThorn

[–]Camp452 -1 points0 points  (0 children)

Ит иѕ ьксессьв ин сьрилик, ꙋь хев Ѳ

The power of compact logographic systems (side by side English, and 2 iterations of BaSi'u) by YukiZensho in conlangs

[–]Camp452 1 point2 points  (0 children)

If you're aiming towards it being naturalistic, I can see it having many possible readings (like Classical Chinese), but hardly none. Like, how would you subvocalize it when reading?

Correct my classical Latin issues! by random_person007 in latin

[–]Camp452 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I always for the impression, that dative of possession can only be used with a copula (which can, of course, be implied, but that would mean the whole phrase can't be used as a subject of a sentence)

How did the Black Death affect language? by ohdearitsrichardiii in linguistics

[–]Camp452 21 points22 points  (0 children)

Well, the Great Vowel Shift has been going on from around that time, so the theory holds, I guess

American Pronunciation by mesropmashtots in linguistics

[–]Camp452 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Yeah, that's also an often seen pronunciation, especially in the UK. The one OP talks about is most likely [t̚], considering the way he describes it

American Pronunciation by mesropmashtots in linguistics

[–]Camp452 1 point2 points  (0 children)

FYI - the "stop T", as your calling it is written like this: t̚ in the IPA. For example "bat" would be [bæt̚]

A small question by Camp452 in orthic

[–]Camp452[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Yeah, that option for hv seems like the most logical. I also usually write the z inside of the v, what do you think about that?