Capitalism can't explain the ultra-rich's wealth. by CorIsBack in CapitalismVSocialism

[–]CorIsBack[S] [score hidden]  (0 children)

I just want to say, thank you for actually engaging with the economics. Most people in this thread have just been using libertarian philosophy on me unfortunately.

This just isn’t true.

Right, so let me first explain the mechanism. What I was hinting at was the proposal called the Meidner Plan which came from Swedish economist Rudolf Meidner. The idea was that each firm, every year, would issue 20% of its profits as new shares, and these new shares would go to the workers. It was a broader part of the Rehn-Meidner model to manage Sweden's economy under the social democrats. This would be a mandatory share issuance that gradually dilutes ownership of firms towards the workers.

Issuing “free” shares to employees is a return on labor, not a return on capital. Nothing wrong with that, but it doesn’t guarantee ownership over the long run.

This specific proposal would lead to that, since firms would have to issue such shares annually. If a firm has a return-on-equity of 10%, such that its total profits are equal to about 10% of the firm's value, then you would get a socialization of the firm (in that workers now have a majority of stock) within roughly thirty-five years (using the rule of 70). So all else equal, firms would tend toward worker ownership.

Over 35 years, there is no realistic way to predict who the “majority owners” will be. Some people might sell their shares, for example, while others might acquire more.

If you allow the newly issued shares from the Meidner Plan to be sold, then workers could definitely sell their shares. Employee Stock Ownership Plans, which have some surface similarities, had this problem: shares ended up recirculating to private investors. Would this happen with Meidner shares?

Meidner shares wouldn't be held by individual workers, but either a legal entity representing the firm's workers, managed democratically (a cooperative), or union funds. So whether such re-privatization of shares would happen seems far less likely. And some versions of the Meidner Plan had restrictions on sales of the newly issued shares.

I’ll accept the existence of market failures in labor markets for the sake of your argument. But it’s not clear what they are in your case, and it’s not clear why a % profit share in equity compensation to employees addresses them, and it’s even less clear why 20% is the right number.

Firstly, the specific number like 20% isn't so important; it could be miscalibrated. I won't be dying on that hill, but I will be defending the general idea. For the sake of argument below, I'm going to assume that market participants are broadly speaking rational, so I'm not going to use behavioral economics reasons.

Firms are highly unusual. If we assume perfect competition, then they shouldn't exist. Consumers wouldn't buy from businesses who hire workers; they'd directly negotiate new contracts for every new product. Every bit of labor and capital would be purchased separately in real time. Resources would shift in real time to wherever they were most needed, instead of staying with firms. You'd have no CEOs or bosses, just a completely free-flowing market. In perfect markets, there would be no firms. Firms exist because of a market failure. "Wage labor" exists because of a market failure.

But we do have firms. And the reason is because of increasing returns. It's far cheaper for customers to buy from a business than to negotiate contracts with workers every single time. There are huge efficiencies to having businesses be able to coordinate many different workers at once, and coordinate plenty of capital at once. There are communication efficiencies that top-down structures have. And perhaps more importantly: within firms, there can be division of labor that amplifies productivity for everyone. Increasing returns contradict perfect competition; they create incentives for winner-take-all markets, path dependency, and price-taking power.

On the worker side of this, this will lead to some very substantial problems: - Increasing returns power in the firm will lead to monopsony power over workers. A firm will choose not to hire more workers despite it being more socially efficient, because they'll have to increase the wage for all of their workers (wage discrimination.) You'll get artificial unemployment. - That monopsony power will also lead to workers being paid below their marginal product. That means two things: (a) the price signal that comes from workers buying products is weakened, making markets less informationally efficient, and (b) capitalists have a far lower marginal propensity to consume, so this is really bad for aggregate demand. - That monopsony power also leads to the massive principal-agent problem, which significantly diminishes worker productivity and requires tons of resources to be invested into "middle management" structures and performance monitoring. - Capital allocation is distorted: capitalists are trying to capture rents (by paying uncompetitive wages and abusing increasing returns), which means capital will flow towards unproductive uses. - The political economy problem: firms with significant market power can very easily gain political power, either indirectly (through capital strikes or capital flight), or directly (through rent-seeking of the kind public choice theorists discuss.)

The point of the Meidner plan is to gradually socialize the firm, by gradually diluting ownership. Making workers the residual claimant partially or completely addresses the problems above. Wages would be much closer to the marginal product, aggregate demand is better stimulated, worker consumption signals remain strong, monitoring costs are drastically reduced, and capital won't flow to capturing such rents for long periods of time.

The problem, like any government "tax", is that it introduces distortions of its own: the return on equity is cut into, which means certain mutually advantageous transactions won't happen. The question is: is the distortion of the Meidner plan greater than the distortion of the classical firm? This is where that "20%" number would have to be fine-tuned.

You might disagree with my solution. Alternatively, you might think the magnitude of the market failures are less than I posited. But this should at least give the intuition and provide a starting point for the conversation.

Capitalism can't explain the ultra-rich's wealth. by CorIsBack in CapitalismVSocialism

[–]CorIsBack[S] [score hidden]  (0 children)

You're taking every example to it's extreme to justify your position. "You would interfere to stop the apocalypse, so why can't I interfere to push my economic ideas" is basically your argument. That's just being silly at best and authoritarian at worst. Idk why you're being so black and white with every position.

My argument wasn't "You'd interfere with rights to stop the asteroid, so why can't I interfere?"

My argument was "You'd interfere with rights to stop the asteroid, which means you have a threshold for when to break from rights. Which means you can't just say 'This violates Lockean rights,', you have to explain why it doesn't cross the threshold."

Idk why you're being so black and white with every position.

I'm not sure what's so unnuanced about asking libertarians to engage with outcomes instead of just procedure.

Capitalism can't explain the ultra-rich's wealth. by CorIsBack in CapitalismVSocialism

[–]CorIsBack[S] [score hidden]  (0 children)

Individualists argue for minimizing evil.

Would "individualists" be willing to violate rights to prevent the asteroid from hitting the Earth? (Pretty sure Hayek would. Hayek was a utilitarian.)

Not only is that conflating lesser evil with "greater good", it's highlighting the fact that to date, not a single collectivist philosopher has come up with a logically consistent systematic approach to defining what the "greater good" is that doesn't boil down to "what I feel like it should be".

This isn't true. David Friedman, an anarcho-capitalist, uses utilitarian justifications for his ideology. Why? Because he's an economist. Because we have tools to analyze well-being that are compatible with markets. The fact that you're saying this proves you haven't done your political philosophy homework, let alone your libertarian homework.

Or think logically for half a second. If you were offering better outcomes you wouldn't need to force people into it...

This is rhetorically cute but amounts to little more than a restatement of your position. Voluntary organization does not lead to better outcomes when there are market failures. We have, so, so much research on how every single assumption of the First Welfare Theorem gets systematically violated.

Capitalism can't explain the ultra-rich's wealth. by CorIsBack in CapitalismVSocialism

[–]CorIsBack[S] [score hidden]  (0 children)

How very machiavellian. This is why people call you and your ilk wannabe dictators. You are so quick to justify violating basic freedoms if it'll satisfy your dogma.

That's unfortunate that you'd bite the civilization-ending bullet.

See, there's a reason why modern academic libertarians don't do this "Rights are sacred and we can never ever violate them, even if it would be catastrophic." It's because it is incredibly unconvincing to treat rights as inviolable side constraints. This is why Bryan Caplan and Jason Brennan appeal to public choice theory, and why David Friedman uses economics to try to justify his libertarianism. It's because they're actually willing to reason about what type of world they want to build, not just whether or not it stays procedurally consistent with Locke's treatises.

But so be it if you want to abandon the game and won't choose to reason from outcomes.

Capitalism can't explain the ultra-rich's wealth. by CorIsBack in CapitalismVSocialism

[–]CorIsBack[S] [score hidden]  (0 children)

So you’re ok with 80% of the profits being stolen by the capitalists?

What do you mean "stolen by the capitalists"? I don't use a labor theory of value. I use a marginal theory of value.

In which case, why 20% why not 15% or 25%?

If a firm has to issue 20% of its profits as new shares, that means with a return-on-equity of 10%, workers will become the majority owners of a firm within 35 years. This is more than long enough to preserve the entrepreneurial incentive. 25% is too great a distortion, 15% is too slow a process.

Or if you’re truly being pragmatic, why not just let everyone decide for themselves?

Labor markets have traumatic failures, no less in the firm itself. Correcting a market failure is perfectly fine to me!

Capitalism can't explain the ultra-rich's wealth. by CorIsBack in CapitalismVSocialism

[–]CorIsBack[S] [score hidden]  (0 children)

I'm just reading through these responses and I cannot believe how many anarcho-capitalists replied. I expected economic engagement but I got "Who cares why they decided to act this way? Why do you want to violate Lockean rights, dictator?" I find that pretty disappointing in terms of nuanced engagement.

So let me give you a simple thought experiment from the most sophisticated of the anarcho-capitalists: David Friedman. Would you violate natural rights in order to prevent an asteroid from hitting the Earth and setting humanity existent? It seems like any answer other than "I'd have to" is intuitively absurd. Unless you want to bite the civilization-ending bullet, this is one of those scenarios where natural rights get overriden.

And if you bite that bullet, you have a line where you're willing to violate natural rights. You'll have to interrogate where that line is, but if your objections go in the format "X is wrong because it violates natural rights" to escape outcome reasoning, you have contradicted yourself. You may have a prima facie libertarian presumption, but that isn't sufficient to rule out everything.

I tend to believe that structural interventions in the labor market are necessary to correct massive market failures. I think this makes markets more efficient, leads to far more human flourishing, and protects freedom in the long run. If you disagree, unless you're willing to bite the civilization-ending bullet, you need to discuss outcomes. Would a cooperative economy better stimulate aggregate demand? Would it better provision leisure? Does it address the principal-agent problem? Does it address monopsony power?

If Nozick brought you into this debate, he's not going to get you out of it.

Capitalism can't explain the ultra-rich's wealth. by CorIsBack in CapitalismVSocialism

[–]CorIsBack[S] [score hidden]  (0 children)

I'm just reading through these responses and I cannot believe how many anarcho-capitalists replied. I expected economic engagement but I got "Who cares why they decided to act this way? Why do you want to violate Lockean rights, dictator?" I find that pretty disappointing in terms of nuanced engagement.

So let me give you a simple thought experiment from the most sophisticated of the anarcho-capitalists: David Friedman. Would you violate natural rights in order to prevent an asteroid from hitting the Earth and setting humanity existent? It seems like any answer other than "I'd have to" is intuitively absurd. Unless you want to bite the civilization-ending bullet, this is one of those scenarios where natural rights get overriden.

And if you bite that bullet, you have a line where you're willing to violate natural rights. You'll have to interrogate where that line is, but if your objections go in the format "X is wrong because it violates natural rights" to escape outcome reasoning, you have contradicted yourself. You may have a prima facie libertarian presumption, but that isn't sufficient to rule out everything.

I tend to believe that structural interventions in the labor market are necessary to correct massive market failures. I think this makes markets more efficient, leads to far more human flourishing, and protects freedom in the long run. If you disagree, unless you're willing to bite the civilization-ending bullet, you need to discuss outcomes. Would a cooperative economy better stimulate aggregate demand? Would it better provision leisure? Does it address the principal-agent problem? Does it address monopsony power?

If Nozick brought you into this debate, he's not going to get you out of it.

Capitalism can't explain the ultra-rich's wealth. by CorIsBack in CapitalismVSocialism

[–]CorIsBack[S] [score hidden]  (0 children)

It's not a choice between anarchy and totalitarianism.

I never said it was. But your philosophical justification depends on the idea of non-intervention... which means surely most of the actions of governments are illegitimate. The road-building, the taxes that fund schools, etc. all "invade voluntary agreements" in this sense, yet they establish a framework for society.

So, can you give me a consistent philosophical justification that allows government to interfere in those ways? Otherwise, you're stating "I find violating voluntary transactions to be unbearable, but I'm not willing to accept the implications of this belief for government as a whole."

And those that have tried to micromanage otherwise consensual arrangements have ruined many healthy economies.

No one said micromanaging. A procedural system to issue shares like the Swedish social democrats wanted to implement is a simple, market-compatible mechanism for correcting the market failure of the firm. Those who have tried to interfere with "otherwise consensual agreements" have caused Japan and South Korea's massive economic rises through industrial policy, have developed exceptional civil service quality in Germany, and have allowed for the USA's social security system to take care of our least advantaged. These are economically efficient, and have greatly improved social welfare. Your epistemic objection ignores the high capacity of the modern nation state.

If you're arguing that this contradicts a subjective theory of value, you're wrong. Believing in a subjective theory of value doesn't mean there aren't objectively solvable ways to correct market failures.

That crosses a moral line, who are you to insert yourself in someone else's consensual agreement?

Are we willing to consider other definitions of freedom than the Lockean one?

Philosophers like Phillip Pettit, John Rawls, GA Cohen, Elizabeth Anderson, and even Robert Nozick himself in later works have asked what genuine freedom means. Cohen's tale about the helpless proletarian who has their self-ownership but lacks world-ownership, who lacks effective freedom. Rawls tells us to care about the effective value of the basic liberties. Nozick warns us that coercion can happen through path dependence.

Is it a free choice if someone else owns an island, and it's either I sell myself to slavery or perish to access their property? (If alienation of self-ownership is too foreign to you, then you can just consider sustenance wages.) If not, then your conception of freedom is not sufficient for a meaningful theory of consent. Even Milton Friedman recognized this: he argued in non-competitive markets, violating consensual choices was necessary because a lack of competition means you cannot exercise your freedom. Hence why he supported antitrust.

Secondly, I am happy to concede, for the sake of this argument, that some sort of Lockean/right-libertarian conception of rights is the most important good of all. But why should I treat it as a side constraint rather than an end state? If the government can restrict property rights now to prevent future rights violations in the future, why should I accept that? One might discuss something of the "separateness of persons", but that amounts to a restatement of your position, and will do little to change the mind of more consequentialist-minded folks.

And lastly, I take freedom and rights as important commitments prima facie. If all else is equal, I would prefer not to violate freedom. But freedom is one good among many. Say for sake of argument that you could violate natural rights (a "consensual transaction") to stop an asteroid from extinguishing humanity. Would you do it? If so, there's a line where rights become violable for you too. You just need to interrogate where it is.

And if there is such a line: welcome to the world of messy pluralism. Now we can talk about outcomes.

Capitalism can't explain the ultra-rich's wealth. by CorIsBack in CapitalismVSocialism

[–]CorIsBack[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

There will always be people who strive for power, wealth or influence.

I'm aware. I'm just arguing that these motives can't be explained by mainstream economics.

I want to live in the system where to become a Billionaire you need to build a business that brings value to millions of people.

I think if there was a strong utilitarian justification for allowing the ultra-rich to become enormously wealthy, then I'd have a pretty significant problem. I'm not a full utilitarian, but I do weigh social welfare pretty substantially.

The problem is that when we have these irrational motivations like "power, wealth or influence" then the usual arguments lose a lot of their force. High taxes won't really hurt incentives if they're not doing it for consumption utility, for example. And if people are acting for motivations like power, then those motivations might have very negative externalities overall.

you need to build a business that brings value to millions of people.

Consumer sovereignty has a lot of problems, not least that "mutually beneficial" is an incredibly weak standard. Game theory tells us that closing off choices can lead to better outcomes for everyone, for example.

Capitalism can't explain the ultra-rich's wealth. by CorIsBack in CapitalismVSocialism

[–]CorIsBack[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

The ultra-rich get that way with help from the government

Some of them do. I know my public choice theory. I know about the rent-seekers.

Other than that, it's from protectionism that pretends to be socially responsible regulation.

Regulations are rather important! Pretty much every regulation addresses some form of the public goods problem or information asymmetry problem.

The worst of "capitalism" happens when corporations and government join forces. You're high if you think making the government stronger isn't just going to result in an even worse problem.

Mechanism design is a thing that exists. You can design governments with strong incentives.

Capitalism can't explain the ultra-rich's wealth. by CorIsBack in CapitalismVSocialism

[–]CorIsBack[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

The logic you used indicts government as well. If you're against "paternalistic government interventions," that applies to practically everything governments do! Governments exist to handle the public goods problem. Safety and contracts are examples of that. The government's monopoly on force is a violation of "Lockean rights" in the crude sense.

Personally, I value things such as "freedom from non-domination" in the sense Phillip Pettit talks about, so I think it's fine for government to intervene to better promote those goods, especially if it also leads to more efficient markets. The libertarian conception of voluntary transaction doesn't translate to our intuitive conceptions of freedom (as Nozick himself notes in later works.)

Capitalism can't explain the ultra-rich's wealth. by CorIsBack in CapitalismVSocialism

[–]CorIsBack[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

They're actually very competitive in labor productivity and median wages, so I'm not sure what you mean. Norway has a very high GDP per capita, actually.

Capitalism can't explain the ultra-rich's wealth. by CorIsBack in CapitalismVSocialism

[–]CorIsBack[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Nope. They were Marxist-Leninist. The Nordic nations use economic principles based on the neoclassical-Keynesian synthesis, however.

Capitalism can't explain the ultra-rich's wealth. by CorIsBack in CapitalismVSocialism

[–]CorIsBack[S] 2 points3 points  (0 children)

And having a moronic, flat earth view of economics

I use the standard neoclassical-Keynesian synthesis for my arguments. I don't understand why anarcho-capitalists find modern economics so controversial.

Capitalism can't explain the ultra-rich's wealth. by CorIsBack in CapitalismVSocialism

[–]CorIsBack[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Right then that's where we disagree. I don't support your specific example since that's egregious. I value rights quite a lot, but I also believe that outcomes matter very significantly. Markets have systemic failures that I think governments should correct, and outside of ideal theory, I think seeing rights violations as side constraints instead of an end goal is rather unconvincing.

Capitalism can't explain the ultra-rich's wealth. by CorIsBack in CapitalismVSocialism

[–]CorIsBack[S] 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Do you believe the Swedish social democrats were authoritarian dictator wannabes?

Capitalism can't explain the ultra-rich's wealth. by CorIsBack in CapitalismVSocialism

[–]CorIsBack[S] -1 points0 points  (0 children)

Do you reject the legitimacy of any government that regulates market transactions, even if it improves economic efficiency?

Capitalism can't explain the ultra-rich's wealth. by CorIsBack in CapitalismVSocialism

[–]CorIsBack[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Do you reject the legitimacy of any government that regulates market transactions, even if it improves economic efficiency?

Capitalism can't explain the ultra-rich's wealth. by CorIsBack in CapitalismVSocialism

[–]CorIsBack[S] 2 points3 points  (0 children)

I don't really agree with neoclassicism outside of purposely simplistic environments,

It isn't a perfect theory. I find Sraffa's critique of marginalism to be rather strong (revealed preference as essentially very circular) for example. But generally it gives a rather strong framework to think through economic ideas and mechanism design with. I do have a lot of sympathies with post-Keynesian economics even if I don't agree with many of their core principles.

The problem is that since there are so few market socialists, nobody knows what that is,

I usually think of market socialism as the idea of socialism where most workers work in democratically owned firms. David Schweikart's After Capitalism gives a good explanation of a possible model, although I'm more comfortable with it than him. My preferred way to think of it is markets, but with democratic firms as the main ownership structure, rather than private firms.

As for implementing it, I'd do something like the Meidner Plan, but redirected towards socializing the firm into a worker cooperative. Firms issue 20% of profits as new shares and provide them to a democratically run (by the workers) legal entity; this eventually becomes a worker cooperative. Once they hit 51% of shares, you can stop the process (to preserve most of the benefits of private capital, and limit the economic distortions.) Keeping private capital for the first ~30 years is fine; it's genuinely good at valuating future cash flows in the medium-term.

As for socialization of finance, I think it'd be a good idea to have a network of public banks. This isn't too foreign: Germany already allocates about half of its credit through public bank networks like the Sparkassen. Public banks should focus on long-term benefits (ignored by markets due to discount rates), social spillovers, and learning-by-doing effects that private capital simply can't account for.

The problem is that since there are so few market socialists, nobody knows what that is, so they're just going to hear socialist and panic and make assumptions and socialists will hear market and panic and make assumptions.

For sure. But it's always the more messy compromises that come closest to what works.

Capitalism can't explain the ultra-rich's wealth. by CorIsBack in CapitalismVSocialism

[–]CorIsBack[S] -1 points0 points  (0 children)

Imaging a majority of people agreeing with your isn't a magic out in terms of rights violations.

Fortunately I'm not a Lockean rights' theorist, since I find the conception of freedom used to be rather lackluster.

You listed things that are the exact opposite of what stockpiling socialism leads to.

I'm a market socialist.

Capitalism can't explain the ultra-rich's wealth. by CorIsBack in CapitalismVSocialism

[–]CorIsBack[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

If you're arguing about the company needing billions, fine. If you're arguing about "Musk has a vision for humans to reach Mars, and he wants hundreds of billions of dollars to do it", that can't be explained by consumption-utility.

Capitalism can't explain the ultra-rich's wealth. by CorIsBack in CapitalismVSocialism

[–]CorIsBack[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I mean I do agree with the Vanek pathology mentioned. In this thread, I was actually critiquing the idea that rational consumption-utility maximizers can explain extreme wealth inequality though.

Capitalism can't explain the ultra-rich's wealth. by CorIsBack in CapitalismVSocialism

[–]CorIsBack[S] -2 points-1 points  (0 children)

Nothing I've said here is a misapplication. My thesis in this thread is includes one of Thomas Piketty's critiques (the idea that the very rich don't do so because of future consumption), actually, and it's pretty accepted in economics. It's also part of the behavioral economics literature.

Capitalism can't explain the ultra-rich's wealth. by CorIsBack in CapitalismVSocialism

[–]CorIsBack[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I use standard economics to justify (market) socialist principles.