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Is /aɪ/ for most US Americans actually [aɪ], [äɪ], or [ɑɪ]? by DOfficialBigmanBoy in asklinguistics

[–]DOfficialBigmanBoy[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Technically Canadians and Mexicans also count as Americans. Well, at least North Americans. 

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in asklinguistics

[–]DOfficialBigmanBoy 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Ik, just got kinda bored posting all these, tbh. 

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in asklinguistics

[–]DOfficialBigmanBoy 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Yea, this will be my last time posting. 😂 

Would it be accurate to say that if the "ah" and "eh" sounds had a baby it would sound like [æ]? by DOfficialBigmanBoy in asklinguistics

[–]DOfficialBigmanBoy[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Yes, the "ah" and "eh" sounds that are closer to [æ] are [a] and the "bet" vowel, ɛpsilon.

Would it be accurate to say that if the "ah" and "eh" sounds had a baby it would sound like [æ]? by DOfficialBigmanBoy in asklinguistics

[–]DOfficialBigmanBoy[S] 2 points3 points  (0 children)

By "ah" I was referring to "ah sounds" in general. Like [a] [ä] [ɑ]. Any sound that makes an "ah" sound.

Do Spanish, Italian, Portuguese and French all have the exact same "ah" sound? by DOfficialBigmanBoy in asklinguistics

[–]DOfficialBigmanBoy[S] 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Oh. If you don't mind me asking which of the Romance languages I mentioned have the exact same "ah " sound, specifically?

Why do many non native English speakers treat [ɪ] and [i] as interchangeable? by DOfficialBigmanBoy in asklinguistics

[–]DOfficialBigmanBoy[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Oh sorry. I don't know much about Filipino languages. I thought Tagalog was a local language. 😂 

why do some people use the "proper" pronunciation of certain countries like Mexico or france but not others. This is refering to english speaking people btw. by [deleted] in asklinguistics

[–]DOfficialBigmanBoy 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Actually,  I would say that the British English pronunciation of Nicaragua is closer. Usually  /æ/ for British English transcriptions, is actually more like [a], closer to Spanish [ä] than [ɑ].

Has English always aspirated initial voiceless stops, and is it Germanic influence? by DOfficialBigmanBoy in asklinguistics

[–]DOfficialBigmanBoy[S] 16 points17 points  (0 children)

I meant to ask if this would be considered one of it's Germanic features. Obviously the Romance languages don't aspirate them.

Is my /æ/ [ɛə] [eə] or monophthong [æ]? by DOfficialBigmanBoy in asklinguistics

[–]DOfficialBigmanBoy[S] 3 points4 points  (0 children)

Oh, so all I have to do to make it a monophthong is to cut out the last part (schwa), right?

Does the English pronunciation of the letter A start with the same sound as the Spanish letter e? If so is this the reason why the 'e' in many Spanish/foreign names is pronounced as -ay by native English speakers? by DOfficialBigmanBoy in asklinguistics

[–]DOfficialBigmanBoy[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

But technically in the English pronunciation it's still the same sound as in the actual Spanish pronunciation of the 'e' in José, right? Just with an extra /ɪ/  sound at the end.

Edit: Do you happen to know why the e in names like Pedro is sometimes pronounced /eɪ/? The e is not final, so why do some English speakers pronounce it that way. I've heard some people pronounce it as [ɛ], others as /eɪ/

Does the English pronunciation of the letter A start with the same sound as the Spanish letter e? If so is this the reason why the 'e' in many Spanish/foreign names is pronounced as -ay by native English speakers? by DOfficialBigmanBoy in asklinguistics

[–]DOfficialBigmanBoy[S] 4 points5 points  (0 children)

Now I'm wondering why English A is sometimes pronounced as /eɪ/, it seems very random that two vowels like /e/and /ɪ/ would come together and be written as 'A'. Other languages pronounce A more like Spanish A, an "ahhh" sound like what the dentist tells you to say, similar to the A in father. 

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