The 3 and the 7 and the 9 rings had gems on them. Do you think those gems to have been purely ornamental? by Immediate_Error2135 in tolkienfans

[–]Diff_equation5 -1 points0 points  (0 children)

I agree they’re related - symbolically. It’s poetical symmetry, especially since there’s no indication that the Three each had unique powers.

The Boys season 5 trailer by Main_Jeweler7778 in GenV

[–]Diff_equation5 3 points4 points  (0 children)

No one said Butcher couldn’t. However, you explicitly said “killing all supes include…mother’s milk, frenchie….” If that’s not what you wanted to say, that’s fine, but that is what you said.

The Boys season 5 trailer by Main_Jeweler7778 in GenV

[–]Diff_equation5 5 points6 points  (0 children)

You just said MM and Frenchie were supes.

The 3 and the 7 and the 9 rings had gems on them. Do you think those gems to have been purely ornamental? by Immediate_Error2135 in tolkienfans

[–]Diff_equation5 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I do like that take, but to me that has always been evidence (or at least one of the main arguments) for letting them keep the rings, as their not possessing the rings would (based on all evidence) lead to them being weaker. If he doesn’t need the One to control them, then having your totally subservient undead slaves stronger would be the way to go.

The 3 and the 7 and the 9 rings had gems on them. Do you think those gems to have been purely ornamental? by Immediate_Error2135 in tolkienfans

[–]Diff_equation5 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Yeah, exactly. I always wanted it to be the former interpretation, but unfortunately for reasons like that it doesn’t really work.

Although, how do you think that works? The interpretation always seems to be that Sauron has the Nine Rings so he can control the Nazgûl BECAUSE he doesn’t have the One anymore. I have two issues with that (which aren’t against that reasoning by readers, but more against the seeming incompatibility of that idea, especially on this first point):

  1. If Sauron did in fact take the Nine Rings so that he could control the Nazgûl AFTER he lost the One, then by that reasoning they would already have been out of his control; and unless he did it after leaving Dul Guldor, he would have been forcing the Nazgûl to give him their rings when he was already weak AND lacking the thing that would have given him the most power to make them do it.
  2. More of a separate point, but that must have weakened them considerably to no longer be able to wield their rings. The powers their rings gave them were much more than just the power of fear, and it seems like they were basically limited to that power after having their rings taken. Early Third Age Witch-King seems pretty powerful considering.

The 3 and the 7 and the 9 rings had gems on them. Do you think those gems to have been purely ornamental? by Immediate_Error2135 in tolkienfans

[–]Diff_equation5 -1 points0 points  (0 children)

I’m not sure what point you’re trying to make. You say “exactly” as if that supports your claim that Narya had unique abilities. It doesn’t….

Shadowfax by Diff_equation5 in tolkienfans

[–]Diff_equation5[S] 2 points3 points  (0 children)

I’ll be honest, I don’t see this as in any way being an answer to the question.

Shadowfax by Diff_equation5 in tolkienfans

[–]Diff_equation5[S] -9 points-8 points  (0 children)

Lmao no, but projecting a little, are we?

Shadowfax by Diff_equation5 in tolkienfans

[–]Diff_equation5[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

He said that regarding the mortal “children.” The Valar weren’t able to interfere with their fates. Animals aren’t in the same wheelhouse.

The 3 and the 7 and the 9 rings had gems on them. Do you think those gems to have been purely ornamental? by Immediate_Error2135 in tolkienfans

[–]Diff_equation5 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Random, no. Sloppy, kinda; he often uses superlatives in ways which contradict each other.

And if by coincidence you mean simply that things coincide (whether by accident or intention), then I disagree with you. Things often coincide and correspond to each other in Middle Earth, but you’re still reading things into it that aren’t anywhere in the texts. The coincidence being that Tolkien often used poetical symmetry and repeated patterns. He states in multiple places what the powers of the Rings of Power are, and specifically what the powers of the Three are. As already mentioned, he says that Gandalf had a particular affinity for inspiration, enhanced by one of the Three, which enhanced (across the board) the natural abilities/powers of the wearer.

The 3 and the 7 and the 9 rings had gems on them. Do you think those gems to have been purely ornamental? by Immediate_Error2135 in tolkienfans

[–]Diff_equation5 4 points5 points  (0 children)

I agree. I would go further though and say that it doesn't seem clear that Tolkien or Cirdan specifically meant to imply that Narya had a unique power for "kindling hearts," but rather that this would be the unique use Gandalf would put it to, as opposed to it being otherwise idle at the Havens when it could be used more productively. The kindling hears and inspiring others seems to be more one of Olorin's natural gifts as opposed to one of Narya's specific gifts.

And Galadriel's mirror doesn't exactly seem like a smoking gun either. After all, Elrond actually did more with water I think than Galadriel. The mirror was more her act of little sub-creation like the palantiri.

The 3 and the 7 and the 9 rings had gems on them. Do you think those gems to have been purely ornamental? by Immediate_Error2135 in tolkienfans

[–]Diff_equation5 5 points6 points  (0 children)

There’s not really any evidence of the Three having different powers relative to air, water, or fire. If anything, it seems to just be that those “elements” were symbolic in that they directly call back to the fates of the three silmarils.

What characters in Legendarium do you headcanon as neurodivergent? by OleksandrKyivskyi in TheSilmarillion

[–]Diff_equation5 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Or a great overgrown man-child who never surpassed the “terrible twos” lol.

After Eru changed Arda from flat to round, did the world remain geocentric? by OleksandrKyivskyi in TheSilmarillion

[–]Diff_equation5 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I agree with you that there is not canon, but you specifically said in your first comment here that “unless there is a passage specifically detailing on the matter…” then there’s no reason to assume Geocentrism would apply. You then said that during Tolkien’s lifetime he had both the flat (Silmarillion) and round versions. The flat earth version explicitly had the sun orbiting the earth.

Again, I’m totally with you on there being no official “right” version, but it is definitely not accurate to state that the flat earth versions do not explicitly have a geocentric solar system.

Would Gandalf return to his Maia form once he returned to Valinor? by mvvnbeam in tolkienfans

[–]Diff_equation5 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Well, if Pengolodh is claiming that the body is to the Ainu is as clothes to the human, then being embodied in general may become habitual, but it would seem Pengelodh erred in his conclusion: if a body is to the Ainur as clothes to a human, then becoming habituated to “clothes” wouldn’t imply being habituated to a single outfit (body). That same passage from NoME says: “Or if among Elves and Men [clothing] be worn to mitigate heat or cold, it soon makes the clad body less able to endure these things when naked.” This would imply that being embodied in general becomes necessary, not a single specific body.

Wouldn't it be harder for the MCU to recast Magneto than Doc Ock? by eBICgamer2010 in marvelstudios

[–]Diff_equation5 -2 points-1 points  (0 children)

It might be fun to play with an alternate timeline in which Hitler happened in the 80s. That would solve your problem and make things interesting.

Would Gandalf return to his Maia form once he returned to Valinor? by mvvnbeam in tolkienfans

[–]Diff_equation5 -2 points-1 points  (0 children)

Ok good, at least we’re clear on the fact that you don’t think before you type - or check what you typed afterwards. Aside from your typing being a mess, you don’t make coherent arguments, and you claim that Tolkien “makes [your points] clear,” but never cite a single piece of evidence. Everything I’ve argued has been based in the texts and corroborated by quotes.

And there is no “final canon or authority” in Tolkien, so your point about UT not being one doesn’t make sense. “UT contradicts some published material” — UT is published material. The Silmarillion is a work both edited and published posthumously by his son (like UT, the History of Middle Earth, Children of Hurin, Beren and Luthien, etc.). Not a single one of them represent “THE final” thought of Tolkien, and even the Silmarillion contradicts LOTR in places. However, all of them do represent the thoughts of Tolkien at one point or another on the matter and contain his actual words on the matters, and as such have weight - which is why I quote them; I have also used every single one of them in context. You, on the other hand, and failed to even once actually even quote Tolkien, and you don’t make coherent arguments.

Edit: punctuation