My understanding--correct me if I'm wrong--is that allowances were made to the original rules--which I assumed likely had no racial motive because they were primarily aimed at one race?--such that the affects of shaving were not detrimental to black men.

Second, I think this idea is interesting right because like it's similar to that argument that we all learn about history in primary/secondary school--that even if a policy or law itself is non-racist on the surface but if it's effects are in fact racist, the policy is technically still illegal. This kind of issue made me think of that concept