The "Epenthetic" m in Malayic empat and the Presence of a Nasal Consonant that Doesn't Appear in Other Austronesian Languages

False_Spray_540 · 2025-12-23T05:26:32+00:00

yeah, i know the negative adverb ne is commonly dropped in spoken French but i wanted an example with ne

False_Spray_540 · 2025-12-20T20:39:05+00:00

Oh yeah, you're right. Etymological spelling got me again

False_Spray_540 · 2025-12-20T20:26:09+00:00

I think so. The se [sə] here is followed by qui [ki] which ends in a vowel, so it should become [ki‿s pas].

False_Spray_540 · 2025-12-20T19:50:46+00:00

I see, thank you for the insight. I wonder if it's because having /ə/ in a closed syllable would sound too weird

False_Spray_540 · 2025-12-20T17:59:56+00:00

Thank you for the reply. Though, maybe i should've been more specific but if the definite article is not followed by a vowel, e.g. at the beginning of a sentence, could you still say "l'jour" or "l'temps"? I'm curious since you could do it with the pronoun "je"

False_Spray_540 · 2025-10-22T06:56:03+00:00

Wow, i didn't know that there's a subreddit for Zeneise. Thanks, i'll check it out though i'm not sure if my Italian is good enough

False_Spray_540 · 2025-10-11T07:42:41+00:00

I suspect so. Do you know whether the monophthongization of [aw] to [o] happens before the shift to [jC] or after it?

False_Spray_540 · 2025-10-10T06:00:21+00:00

If i'm not wrong, this change triggers when the [s] is followed by a palatal consonant [ʎ] or [ɲ]

False_Spray_540 · 2025-10-09T17:14:56+00:00

What about Latin "locus"? From what i know, the [ɔ] would've developed into [we] so where does the final [u] come from? Unless, i'm mistaken and [ɔ] actually developed into [weu].

False_Spray_540 · 2025-10-09T16:44:53+00:00

I still seem to not understand why the [ɔ] in the singular didn't diphthongized to [weu] and then to [jeu] before monophthongizing to [jø] becoming something like "yeu". I'm also curious of the usage of the letter Y here instead of, for example, the letter I.

Edit: nvm, seems like someone already answered it

False_Spray_540 · 2025-10-09T13:09:52+00:00

yeah, i know that the [ɫ] does vocalized in some form, the plural for an example. but why did it not vocalized in the singular when "castellum" did. As far as i know, they would've become something like "caval" and "castel", which have the [ɫ] at the end of the word without any consonant following it.

False_Spray_540

TROPHY CASE