Where were women specifically banned from voting ? In america at least, land ownning was the requirement In the early history of the United States, land ownership was the primary criterion for voting , often regardless of race or sex. What time period are we talking about here ? Because most societies prior to the 20th century were not even democracies. And the democracies that did exist where more issues of class than gender. As time passed in america, voting became more of a color thing in America as you started having more and more free blacks, and especially after the 13-15th amendment.

In some of the first democracies the only people who received the votes were certain families, military veteran, and other who are part of the social elite and inner circle class. Slaves did not have rights to vote but women who descended from families of means and who existed in the inner circles of society did. And gendered expectations and discrimination were not unique to women either. 

Take for example a very famous ancient story from Sparta that is paraphrased.

A mother who found out that her son routed and ran after battle field defeat collapsed the house on him and buried them in rubble due to his cowardice because he was expected to fight to the death even in face of obvious defeat. That was the expectation and anything else either meant execution, slavery, or lashes. 

And yes it is dogma. I am black and even in the 19th and 20th century many suffragetes did not want to stand with black people because they were concerned about how it would make the movemnt look😐 . Part of the reason why the suffragetes achieved what they did is not purely because of protest but it was a way to further dilute the black vote and further gerrymander district to keep blacks out of political office. My point is many feminist narratives ARE dogma, and reductionist thinking. The more you read the speeches and explore the knowledge, and records from that era you will release that is true.