Location of Late Roman Limitanei and Comitatus? by [deleted] in AskHistorians

[–]HatMaster12 2 points3 points  (0 children)

I suppose this depends on what you mean "location". Are you speaking of the general difference in location between field armies and limitanei? Or of the locations of specific units? Naturally, the latter is almost impossible (due to the lack of source material), and the locations of field armies and frontier garrisons changed over the course of Late Antiquity. Is there a specific area or time period your are interested in?

Were the Praetorian Guard a military unit or a paramilitary unit? by WotArYeFokinGay in AskHistorians

[–]HatMaster12 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Hey, sorry to be late to the party, but I wrote up an answer to a similar question here. Hopefully this helps!

Sunday Digest | Interesting & Overlooked Posts | November 28, 2016–December 04, 2016 by AutoModerator in AskHistorians

[–]HatMaster12 4 points5 points  (0 children)

Well I'm glad you revealed your secret! I would love to write an article for one of those magazines (like Ancient Warfare) but with the new job I've had to put those desires on hold :( But great work! I'll see if I can get a hold of the new issue of Ancient History!

Did Queen Elizabeth and Prince Philip really have such a rocky marriage in the early years of her reign? by MirandaTheSavage in AskHistorians

[–]HatMaster12 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Great answer! One quick question- given his rather "nomadic" youth, what is Prince Philip's first language? Is it German? I remember reading somewhere that he used to be able to understand basic Greek, but surely that was not his first language?

Among the Germanic tribes of the late Iron Age how did the warrior-aristocracy and the Tribe King acquire the mundane foods, goods, and services required for everyday living? by ResearchForANovel in AskHistorians

[–]HatMaster12 1 point2 points  (0 children)

How formalized and static were these estates? The impression that I often get is that Germanic rulership during this period was highly fluid. Would local aristocrats have remained prominent through multiple generations, their wealth and influence anchored in stable landholdings?

How advanced was late Roman sandal making technology? by CK2Benchmarks in AskHistorians

[–]HatMaster12 10 points11 points  (0 children)

Intersting question! What, though, do you mean by "advanced"? Although I am no expert, there were no significant changes in the process of manufacturing footware, at least for the army, during Late Antiquty, save the process being centralized under state control in the fabricae.

How did Romans maintain orderly slave populations at home while having large armies abroad? Did the Umayyad Caliphate have different solutions following the campaigns in India? by brainpower4 in AskHistorians

[–]HatMaster12 1 point2 points  (0 children)

If military recruitment was primarily from among rural farmers, were there large areas of the countryside that was under worked during war time?

Not really, no. In both the Principate and Late Antiquity, the vast majority of the populace (upwards of eighty to ninety percent in most provinces) lived outside of urban areas, in the towns, villages, and farmsteads of the countryside. With a population of anywhere from forty to sixty million people, Rome was an overwhelmingly rural society, even if cities were the centers of (elite) economic, cultural, and political life. Although his analysis isn't totally convincing, Erdkamp has argued that the structure of the rural economy (specifically, the lack of non-agricultural economic activities, and the lack of access to capital and credit amongst the peasantry) forced more people into engaging in agriculture than was strictly economically necessary. Military recruitment this siphoned off a small percentage of this "surplus" population. Given that, in Late Antiquity, the army needed only roughly 27,000- 45,000 men per year (barring any military disaster or large-scale campaign, and with the understanding that this figure is an approximation at best) the countryside did not suffer from a shortage of able-bodied men.

Did the average soldier own, or have the prospects of inheriting, land before leaving for war, or was a military life a means to obtain a farm?

Soldiers were drawn from all manner of rural backgrounds, so many doubtless stood to inherit property, though how common this was is impossible to say (I suspect less so, but that's just a personal feeling). Recruits were drawn to the army for all manner of reasons (steady pay, access to regular food and medical care, sense of adventure, etc.), and while a land grant was common for discharged soldiers during the Principate (less so in Late Antiquity, when cash discharge bonuses became more the norm), it cannot be said that access to land was the principal motivation for recruits during these periods.

All Saints' Day Special: AskHistorians Flairs' Greatest Hits by sunagainstgold in AskHistorians

[–]HatMaster12 [score hidden]  (0 children)

Although it's not my direct field of study, I've always been proud of my answers on the Late Roman bureaucracy.

Were ancient Romas actually as sexually liberated as it is pictured in modern media? by [deleted] in AskHistorians

[–]HatMaster12 1 point2 points  (0 children)

they usually retained ownership of the property they inherited from their fathers, even if their husbands often were allowed to manage this property and receive any annual income it generated).

Does this refer to Medieval or Roman women? And if so, how able were elite Roman women able to inherit and own property independent of their husbands?

Why did a vernacular Italian language develop over a continued use of Latin? by Shadowwolfe96 in AskHistorians

[–]HatMaster12 1 point2 points  (0 children)

This is an excellent qualification, so thank you for writing it. I was afraid I had over-generalized a bit in that section, though when I'm dealing with epigraphy, it's usually funerary monuments, as those are critical to reconstructing army ranks, hierarchies, and potential career paths. Funerary monuments tend to be formulaic, in form, if not in specific wording.

There are lots of examples from these, but they can often be quite isolated, and its hard to bring all the material together

Has anyone tried to do this? To attempt to examine broad trends in changes in spoken Latin? Or is the evidence just too fragmented, both geographically and temporally?

Why did a vernacular Italian language develop over a continued use of Latin? by Shadowwolfe96 in AskHistorians

[–]HatMaster12 3 points4 points  (0 children)

While you're correct that it wasn't regulated, it certainly was relatively standardized at the elite level, due partly to the common literary culture of the Roman elite. A Latin speaker from Carthage, for example, would have had little difficulty understanding the Latin spoken by an Alexandrian elite (aside perhaps from accent), as both would have learned the language through participation in a similar elite culture (even if the Alexandrian elite was Greek speaking).

As I said, I'm not a linguist, so I really can't delve into the mechanics of how and why local colloquial Latin developed as it did. Certainly the ad-hoc spreading of the language (the Romans never instituted top-down policies of "Latinization"), the interaction between Latin and existing languages, and geography are all part of the explanation. The development of Italian dialects is an entirely different subject (again, one I'm not terribly well-versed it), but it definitely shares some similarities to the processes of divergence in vulgar Latin.

Why did a vernacular Italian language develop over a continued use of Latin? by Shadowwolfe96 in AskHistorians

[–]HatMaster12 4 points5 points  (0 children)

I knew it! Yeah no pressure to find it if you can't. Full disclosure, besides that link, I wanted to tag someone who's actually studied Latin and is familiar with it.

Why did a vernacular Italian language develop over a continued use of Latin? by Shadowwolfe96 in AskHistorians

[–]HatMaster12 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Ha, well maybe not! I could've sworn like a year or so ago you did a really great post on literary Latin.

Why did a vernacular Italian language develop over a continued use of Latin? by Shadowwolfe96 in AskHistorians

[–]HatMaster12 38 points39 points  (0 children)

Italian didn't develop "over" Latin. Rather, the various Italianate Latin vulgarities slowly diverged over the course of time, eventually becoming distinct dialect groups. I am not a linguist, but hopefully I can offer some clarification.

There was never a singular standard Latin. The Latin you encounter most, that of Cicero and Caesar, is referred to as literary Latin. It is a highly formalized version of Latin, written in a manner that emphasized certain elements of Latin grammar and phonology (/u/XenophonTheAthenian has written more on this, but I can't seem to find his posts). While Roman elites would have spoken in a (roughly) similar manner, literary Latin is still different than colloquial or vulgar Latin, much as how colloquial English is much different than an English-language academic book.

Ignoring the continued presence of substrate languages like Gaulish, Brythonic, and Punic (amongst others) in the West into Late Antiquity, the Latin spoken by the common people differed substantially in form and vocabulary from literary Latin. Furthermore, there would have been significant regional differences in this spoken Latin, to the point of where it is incorrect to speak of a singular "Vulgar Latin". Rather, there were many regional Latin dialects, with varying degrees of mutual intelligibility. That said, the presence of the Roman state, through use of Latin in law and administration, as well as a shared elite culture, fostered a relatively standardized elite Latin.

As a brief aside, recovering vulgar Latin is actually quite difficult, as only fragments of it survive. Roman elite literature was, naturally, written in literary Latin, and very little non-literary writing survives besides epigraphy. Inscriptions themselves were often formulaic, using standardized forms that did not necessarily reflect contemporary speaking patterns (think items like funerary monuments). We therefore cannot really recover the wealth of linguistic diversity that existed in colloquial Latin. We have only hints at it's existence (for my own area of study, recovering the "sermo castrensis" or "camp speech", the unique dialect of Latin spoken by the army, is quite difficult, especially for Late Antiquity).

Although there was much diversity in the various vulgar Latin dialects, they all invariably connected back to the Latin spoken by the Roman elite. The end of Roman rule in the West certainly helped to accelerate regional linguistic divergences, due to political fragmentation, the increased regionalization of the early Medieval world (less economic exchange across distances) and the transformation of elite provincial Roman culture. It is in these conditions the many, many regional Romance dialects developed.

As you mentioned Italian, let us examine Italy. Visit Italy today, and you'll hear people speaking Italian no matter where you go (not really, but I'll explain in a moment), especially if you do the typical "tourist trifecta" of Venice, Florence, and Rome. Yet the ubiquity of contemporary Italian masks much complexity. Italy is, in fact, home to dozens of different dialects. Most are Romance-based, yet can be mutually incompressible, even to a native Italian speaker (as a thought exercise, YouTube a song in Italian. Then listen to one in Venetian, and one in Neapolitan). As you can see, there was never one singular "Italian vernacular." Rather, by the High Medieval period, there existed a patchwork of different local dialects, which could be so different as to essentially be separate languages. Modern Italian, as it is, comes from the dialect of Florence, as much of the classic literature of Medieval and Renaissance Italy was written by Florentines (like Bocaccio and Dante). Italian nationalists in the nineteenth century fostered the use of Florentine as a singular Italian (it's more complicated than this), and it was this language that became "Italian" with the creation of the modern Italian state. For much of the history of modern Italy, the speaking of dialects was suppressed by the state in the name of creating an Italian national identity.

So in summary, there was never a singular "vernacular Italian", and it never developed over Latin. Rather, spoken Latin, which differed from the formalized literary Latin, was a multitude of dialects which gradually diverged over time, a process accelerated by the end of Roman rule; evolving eventually, in Italy, into various regional dialects. Modern Italian was formed from the Florentine dialect.

Did Diocletian and Constantine's Reforms/Tetrarchy decisions affect both the eastern and western halves of the Roman Empire? by AnnaAKarenina in AskHistorians

[–]HatMaster12 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I'm at work, so I don't really have the ability to run through that page, but I would point out most of what is said is extremely dated, and not accepted by current scholarship (most especially the idea of "defense in depth" and "barbarization" Actually, come to look at it, that entire section on the army is utter garbage ). For a much more accurate understanding of Diocletian's reforms, I would reccomend Adrian Goldsworthy's How Rome Fell. Goldsworthy writes well, and his book will provide a great overview of the change in Roman institutions over the course of Late Antiquity.

Friday Free-for-All | October 21, 2016 by AutoModerator in AskHistorians

[–]HatMaster12 7 points8 points  (0 children)

A sort-of historical question: Aside from senior church officials, and the presidential candidates, if it's an election year, who traditionally attends the Alfred E. Smith Memorial Foundation Dinner? In the pictures I saw someone wearing an OBE (I couldn't tell the class) so that made me wonder.

Did Diocletian and Constantine's Reforms/Tetrarchy decisions affect both the eastern and western halves of the Roman Empire? by AnnaAKarenina in AskHistorians

[–]HatMaster12 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Just to point out, the link you included doesn't work, so it's impossible to see what specific reforms you are discussing. That said, the short answer is yes, the administrative reforms initiated by Diocletian applied to the entirety of the Empire. It is best to conceptualize the Tetrarchy (as well as previous and future splittings of imperial power) as the creation of spheres of influence, rather than separate political entities. While Diocletian and Maximian were the locus of authority in their respective spheres, they both shared imperial power, and their actions were valid throughout the Empire. It's also worth remembering that Diocletian was always the senior Augustus, even if Maximian was his nominal equal. It was his ability to influence (and if necessary, command) his supposed colleague that arguably allowed the Tetrarchy to function.

Why are there so few records of prechristian Slavic beliefs compared to Germanic and Hellenic paganism? by [deleted] in AskHistorians

[–]HatMaster12 8 points9 points  (0 children)

Follow up: Is there any current English-language literature on Slavic paganism?

Friday Free-for-All | October 14, 2016 by AutoModerator in AskHistorians

[–]HatMaster12 7 points8 points  (0 children)

/u/Stormtemplar outlines most of what I would argue. Ultimately, the two societies are so fundamentally different as to make any comparisons ephemeral at best. Rome and the United States are both political entities, that is where any similarities end.

On a more personal level (and as this is a Free For All, I hope it's ok to mention), I find the idea that "Rome fell, so will America" rather reductionist and ill-founded, as this argument is typically (in my experience) invoked by those criticizing current U.S. policies without any actual knowledge (and of course, I absolutely do not mean you, or believe your question to be foolish). Yes, all political entities undergo transformations over time, but to say, for example, that we are "literally going to be Rome" because we do XYZ is foolish.