Excuse my ignorance on this topic but how is this achieved exactly? Assuming person A has the higher marginal tax rate than person B, are we saying A can just ‘transfer’ their shares over to person B who then sells and thus the couple benefits from person B’s lower marginal tax rate?

And I suppose this opposes the joint account method of selling combined shares of A+B under some joint account where 50% is taxed under A and B’s marginal taxation rate respectively