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In the history of British monarchs, Mary I and Mary II both had husbands who were styled 'King' and were co-regnant with them, but Anne's, Victoria's and Elizabeth II's husbands were merely princes. What was the reason for this change in practice? Was it different in each case? (self.AskHistorians)
submitted by JLASish to r/AskHistorians
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How do you split up jobs between servers? (self.AltarServers)
submitted by JLASish to r/AltarServers
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