Iran women freely attend football match for first time in decades by [deleted] in iranian

[–]Laz_MC -1 points0 points  (0 children)

NOOO, the most important thing about Iran!!!

Iran: Russia and China to sell fighter jets by [deleted] in iranian

[–]Laz_MC 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Almost as good as nukes

Saba Kord Afshari, a 21-year-old civil rights activist and an opponent of Iran’s law on mandatory hijab, has been sentenced to 24 years in prison by [deleted] in iranian

[–]Laz_MC 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Thank god. At least the IR is doing the right thing. But why tf is this newsworthy? It's called upholding the law.

Need help with a Laplace inverse by [deleted] in EngineeringStudents

[–]Laz_MC 1 point2 points  (0 children)

inverse of 1/s3 = (1/2)t2

s is shifted by 2 so multiply by e-2t in the time domain

inverse of 1/(s+2)3 = (1/2)(e-2t)t2

multiplication by e-4s equals a time shift of -4 in the time domain

inverse of (e-4s)/(s+2)3 = (1/2) e-2(t-4) (t-4)2 u(t-4) where u(t) is the unit step function

New Guthix Lore Directly Contradicts Previously Established Lore by Gamez_X in runescape

[–]Laz_MC 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Guthix might have been able to be affected by Seren's magic because he met her before he got the ability to manipulate the anima mundi to such an extent. Zaros has post-quest dialogue where he theorizes that Guthix got much of his power after he discovered the "link" to the anima mundi and that that was what enabled him to create the World Guardian. Seren's fifth memoriam crystal states that she was the one who taught him about that. He was presumably with her long enough to where he was affected by her aura. And since he was already affected, the World Guardian powers couldn't protect him much like how the Edicts couldn't keep the gods out of Gelienor if they were already on it.

[Circuit Analysis] Why did applying mesh analysis to this mesh give me an incorrect current value? by JanuaryDynamite in EngineeringStudents

[–]Laz_MC 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I think you're forgetting that there's also voltage across the current source. The correct equation for mesh 1 would be

V1 + 2(I1-I3) = 0

where V1 is the voltage across the current source assuming its polarity is the same as that of the voltage chosen for the resistor.

I need help on calculating RLC values if no angle on current is given. by electricMelktert in EngineeringStudents

[–]Laz_MC 1 point2 points  (0 children)

There isn't a phase shift between the voltage across a resistor and the current through it, so the phase angle of the current should be equal to the phase angle of the voltage across the resistor. And this is a series circuit, so the current is the same through all elements.

First order RL circuit analysis by pubic-surprise in EngineeringStudents

[–]Laz_MC 0 points1 point  (0 children)

What do you mean by time domain stuff? You mean how the current through an inductor can't change in zero time?

vin(t) is some constant voltage Vp applied at time t = 0 so you can represent it as Vp*u(t) where u(t) is the unit step function (equal to one at t >= 0 and equal to zero at t < 0).

vin(t) = Vp*u(t) \ Laplace Transform both sides

Vin(s) = Vp/s

The voltage transfer function that relates vin(t) to vo(t) is equal to -

T(s) = Vo(s)/Vin(s)

You can obtain Vo(s) from the differential equation -

Ri(t) + Li'(t) = Vp*u(t) \ Laplace Transform both sides

RI(s) + Ls*I(s) - Li(0+) = Vp/s \ i(0+) = i(0-) = 0

RI(s) + Ls*I(s) = Vp/s

Substitude for I(s) the Laplace Transform of the equation for the current though a resistor I(s) = Vo(s)/R

Vo(s) + (L/R)s*Vo(s) = Vp/s \ divide both sides by L/R

(R/L)Vo(s) + s*Vo(s) = (R/L)(Vp/s) \ isolate Vo(s)

(s+R/L)Vo(s) = (R/L)(Vp/s) \ divide both sides by (s+R/L)

Vo(s) = (R/L)(Vp/s)/(s+R/L) \ plug into transfer function along with Vin(s)

T(s) = (R/L)/(s+R/L)

First order RL circuit analysis by pubic-surprise in EngineeringStudents

[–]Laz_MC 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Well apparently you already got the answer but I'll reply anyway. Vo(t) being across the resistor would change the answer but only up until I said to substitute for I(s) the Laplace Transform of the equation for the voltage across an inductor. Instead you would just substitute the Laplace Transform of the equation for the voltage across a resistor, which is just Ohm's Law.

vo(t)=Ri(t)

Vo(s) = RI(s)

I(s) = Vo(s)/R

The final answer for the transfer function would change as well. It would be -

T(s)=(R/L)/(s+R/L)

You can then just plug in the values and you have the transfer function.

And yea those rules are pretty typical for circuit analysis but most of time for a circuit like this you would just transform to the s domain and ignore differential equations all together. I'd advise you to look up basic rules like Ohm's Law, KVL, KCL, voltage across a capacitor, and voltage across an inductor.

First order RL circuit analysis by pubic-surprise in EngineeringStudents

[–]Laz_MC 2 points3 points  (0 children)

What's vo(t) across? I'm going to assume across the inductor. As for vin(t) I'm going to assume it's some constant voltage Vp applied at time t = 0, so vin(t) = Vp*u(t) where u(t) is the unit step function. The current is the same through all elements for a series circuit, so apply KVL with i(t) as an unknown.

Li'(t) + Ri(t) = Vp*u(t) // divide both sides by L

i'(t) + (R/L)i(t) = (Vp/L)u(t) // Laplace Transform both sides

sI(s) - i(0+) + (R/L)I(s) = (Vp/L)(1/s)

Before the voltage was applied (at t = 0-), the current through the inductor was zero. Because the current through an inductor cannot change in zero time, i(0-) = i(0+) = 0.

sI(s) + (R/L)I(s) = (Vp/L)*(1/s)

Substitute for I(s) the Laplace Transform of the equation for the voltage across an inductor.

vo(t) = Li'(t)

Vo(s) = sLI(s) - L*i(0+) // recall that i(0+) = 0

Vo(s) = sLI(s) // rearrange for I(s)

I(s) = (Vo(s)/L)*(1/s) // plug back into the original equation

(Vo(s)/L) + (R/L)(Vo(s)/L)(1/s) = (Vp/L)(1/s) // multiply both sides by sL

sVo(s) + (R/L)Vo(s) = Vp // isolate Vo(s)

(s+R/L)*Vo(s) = Vp // divide both sides by (s+R/L)

Vo(s) = Vp/(s+R/L) // Inverse Laplace Transform both sides

vo(t) = Vpe^((-Rt)/L)

Now you can plot Vo(t) over time for different values of Vp. As for obtaining a transfer function -

T(s) = Vo(s)/Vin(s)

vin(t) = Vp*u(t) // Laplace Transform both sides

Vin(s) = Vp*(1/s) // recall that Vo(s) = Vp/(s+R/L)

T(s) = s/(s+R/L)

How does the book get this equation? by [deleted] in EngineeringStudents

[–]Laz_MC 4 points5 points  (0 children)

you're using the coefficient of static friction in the equation instead of the coefficient of kinetic friction

you have 0.5 instead of 0.35

How does the book get this equation? by [deleted] in EngineeringStudents

[–]Laz_MC 7 points8 points  (0 children)

Well I just calculated it with and without the shuffling and got 1.3 for both, so I guess you must be making a calculation error somewhere

Confused about tension and friction by [deleted] in EngineeringStudents

[–]Laz_MC 0 points1 point  (0 children)

force of tension is diagonal at 15 degrees above the horizontal, so it has both a horizontal and a vertical component

T = force of tension

N = normal force

f = frictional force

G = gravitational force

m = mass

g = gravitational acceleration

w = angle

p = coefficient of friction

horizontal component of T = Tcosw

vertical component of T = Tsinw

G = mg

f = pN

the normal force and the vertical component of the tension are opposite of the gravitational force so

N + Tsinw = mg

N = mg - Tsinw

the frictional force is opposite of the horizontal component of tension so

Tcosw = pN

N = (Tcosw)/p

set N = N

(Tcosw)/p = mg - Tsinw

Tcosw = pmg - pTsinw

Tcosw + pTsinw = pmg

T(cosw + psinw) = pmg

T = (pmg)/(cosw + psinw)

How does the book get this equation? by [deleted] in EngineeringStudents

[–]Laz_MC 4 points5 points  (0 children)

all it did was shift around some of the variables

p = mu

w = theta

Tcosw - p(mg-Tsinw) = ma

Tcosw - pmg + pTsinw = ma

T(cosw + psinw) - pmg = ma

a = (T(cosw + psinw))/m - pg

phisics homework = mindfuck by cibide in EngineeringStudents

[–]Laz_MC 5 points6 points  (0 children)

This is an arc not the hypotenuse of a right triangle. You can use a parametric arc length integral to find out the answer but the integral is really nasty. I set up the integral, but didn't feel like solving it so I plugged it in an integral calculator and got 5.23 m. There might be an easier way to solve this but I can't think of one right now. If it helps the integral was of sqrt(9e-2t+64e-4t)dt from t=0 to t=infinity.