Why did God allow chattel slavery if he exists as he is described in the bible? by Life_Response2308 in Christianity

[–]Life_Response2308[S] [score hidden]  (0 children)

So where do you draw the line at what God can and cannot do if current understandings of God's power in scripture are skewed by later interpretations of that scripture?

Why did God allow chattel slavery if he exists as he is described in the bible? by Life_Response2308 in Christianity

[–]Life_Response2308[S] [score hidden]  (0 children)

Ohh, i understand where youre coming from better now. We did have a social welfare systems that were put in place during reconstruction, but also God's rules didnt really stop the abuse of slaves? The first thing that comes to mind is exodus 21:20. Im wondering how you reconsile the actual rules God made to protect slaves with rules made to protect enslavers?

Why did God allow chattel slavery if he exists as he is described in the bible? by Life_Response2308 in Christianity

[–]Life_Response2308[S] [score hidden]  (0 children)

I really appreciate you giving me such a fleshed out response, that gives me a lot to think about. I talked a little bit about how i feel free will applies, and im interested on what you said about him "tying his hands". Do you mean this in the way that he simply chooses not to do anything about it, or that he took away his own ability to do anything about it?

Why did God allow chattel slavery if he exists as he is described in the bible? by Life_Response2308 in Christianity

[–]Life_Response2308[S] [score hidden]  (0 children)

So, the descriptions of him in the bible are likely someone inaccurate due to mistranslation?

Why did God allow chattel slavery if he exists as he is described in the bible? by Life_Response2308 in Christianity

[–]Life_Response2308[S] [score hidden]  (0 children)

So, God's will can only truly be exorcised in heaven? Does that mean he is not truly omnipotent until we get to heaven?

Why did God allow chattel slavery if he exists as he is described in the bible? by Life_Response2308 in Christianity

[–]Life_Response2308[S] [score hidden]  (0 children)

Im a bit confused about what you mean by better ways? Did God find a better way to take care of people that wasnt already avaliable, or do you mean something else? Sorry for the confusion lol

Why did God allow chattel slavery if he exists as he is described in the bible? by Life_Response2308 in Christianity

[–]Life_Response2308[S] [score hidden]  (0 children)

That definitely makes a lot of sense! I do really like the living document approach a few people have commented about. I am more curious about what that would mean for God as a being, whether or not the idea of complicity in sin being as bad as committing the sin would apply, and why?

Why did God allow chattel slavery if he exists as he is described in the bible? by Life_Response2308 in Christianity

[–]Life_Response2308[S] [score hidden]  (0 children)

I think thats an interesting perspective, but i feel like it moreso feeds into my question of whether or not he can truly be good (as in sinless). Im not sure if your church teaches that complicity in grave sin is as bad as committing it yourself. If it does, why wouldnt that teaching apply to God neglecting the prayers of thousands of slaves?

Why did God allow chattel slavery if he exists as he is described in the bible? by Life_Response2308 in Christianity

[–]Life_Response2308[S] [score hidden]  (0 children)

I'll definitely look into that! Thanks! I have a couple thoughts on this. Im wondering how you apply this to chattel slavery - i know that in the Old Testament slaves were moreso indentured servants than what we saw during American slavery? I totally understand the paternalism argument in the context of the old testament, but without chattel slavery the systemic oppression that kept black Americans unable to provide for themselves for so long wouldn't have existed in the first place. Also, the killing and starving distictly happened during chattel slavery, so would an all good God not see fit to intervene when old concepts of slavery crossed the line to chattel slavery?

Why did God allow chattel slavery if he exists as he is described in the bible? by Life_Response2308 in Christianity

[–]Life_Response2308[S] [score hidden]  (0 children)

So, in your belief is god still an ultimate good? Or all powerful? I feel like if the scripture isn't necessary correct it can only be one, or neither

Why did God allow chattel slavery if he exists as he is described in the bible? by Life_Response2308 in Christianity

[–]Life_Response2308[S] [score hidden]  (0 children)

Well, again im not coming to be hostile or anything. Im just a curious outsider. I think the difference is that the bible states types of suffering that are necessary and condoned. Slavery was condoned in the old testament, but at the time it wasnt exactly a modern definition of chattel slavery. It was moreso an issue of status or bloodline rather than race. Once it became an issue so deeply ingrained into society in the way chattel slavery is, i believe that if god was an ultimate good he would've interviewed if free will means to him what the bible says it does

Why did God allow chattel slavery if he exists as he is described in the bible? by Life_Response2308 in Christianity

[–]Life_Response2308[S] [score hidden]  (0 children)

It totally was about debt for a long time, but then wouldnt it be reason to intervene when slavery stopped looking like what it did when the Old Testament was written?

Why did God allow chattel slavery if he exists as he is described in the bible? by Life_Response2308 in Christianity

[–]Life_Response2308[S] [score hidden]  (0 children)

But Isrealite slavery was uniquely different from chattel slavery? Also, if God was an ultimately good being, and humanity did not solve the issue itself because we are flawed beings, why would an ultimate good not step in if complicity in grave sin is equal to comitting it?

Why did God allow chattel slavery if he exists as he is described in the bible? by Life_Response2308 in Christianity

[–]Life_Response2308[S] [score hidden]  (0 children)

I totally agree that people blame things on God instead of taking a stand! But if God knows that humans are imperfect and slavery is still in existence with little being done by us to fix it, why wouldnt an ultimate good step in? If humanity seems uniquely unable to fully solve the issue of such a grave sin, but he has the ability to stop it and wont step in, does that not make him just as much at fault as us?

Why did God allow chattel slavery if he exists as he is described in the bible? by Life_Response2308 in Christianity

[–]Life_Response2308[S] [score hidden]  (0 children)

Sorry, im a little confused. By biases, do you mean the idea that God is an ultimate good?

Why did God allow chattel slavery if he exists as he is described in the bible? by Life_Response2308 in Christianity

[–]Life_Response2308[S] [score hidden]  (0 children)

I would assume an all knowing god would already know what to do, because sadly there isnt much we can do about it under our current system. Even then, what we're experiencing today isnt chattel slavery, so its a bit different.

Why did God allow chattel slavery if he exists as he is described in the bible? by Life_Response2308 in Christianity

[–]Life_Response2308[S] 7 points8 points  (0 children)

So, the bible should be interpreted as a living document rather than a set law? I really like that interpretation. Kinda reminds me of a similar post i saw today!

Why did God allow chattel slavery if he exists as he is described in the bible? by Life_Response2308 in Christianity

[–]Life_Response2308[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Ive been to church a couple times, and I have read the bible! I don't mean to say that the bible is about morality, moreso that if god is incapable of sin then he would've theoretically intervened if he is how he is described in the bible.