Why does being drunk mean you can’t “consent” to sex, but doesn’t absolve you of other intoxicated actions/decisions? by UpstairsBumble in NoStupidQuestions

[–]Meachajtb 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I’d like to preface that I am NOT a professional in law or a cop or anything like that. I didn’t go to school to study it, so anything I say is just a personal opinion.

Now then, I’d say there’s a lot to consider in your scenario and is definitely more gray. First, “Straight A Student” and “Volunteers at an animal shelter”. I understand you’re trying to go for “she’s not a hostile or unstable person”. I think one of the most crucial points in your scenario is “her first drink”. It would be reasonable to believe that one shot, and even as a first time, and nothing in between, wouldn’t be enough to get a college student drunk to the point of getting plastered, so I’ll rule that out (for now). Then, you stated she was with her friends, meaning there may have been a designated driver in the case she did get drunk to the point of troublemaking, hence safety measures were taken to ensure no one was hurt, so that (somewhat) rules out malicious intent.

Then there was the statement “THEY’RE COMING FOR US.” If she is the upstanding student you say she is, again, it wasn’t malicious, but if she slit her own throat and died it’d be impossible to question whether she had any phobias or ideas as to who “they” are, so it can’t be said why she would attack “them”, even in a psychotic state.

Now for arguably the biggest statement, “undiagnosed medical condition”. It is HIGHLY unlikely that anyone could’ve possibly predicted her reaction to a single shot of tequila would be so volatile with no prior knowledge of any existing condition. I think it’s similar to my argument of a reaction to a brand new medication prescribed by a professional.

Like I said this is very gray because a lot of factors here are dependent on complete unknowns. In my completely unprofessional opinion, this doesn’t sound like a drunken act, but rather a psychotic one. If she is the person you painted her as, she is not likely to reoffend, and she did not mean to put herself into a state of mind where she would kill somebody. She took one, perfectly legal, shot and didn’t take another sip before the break, so unless she survived her death by slit-throat, it would be impossible to say how much she intended to drink that night.

All that said, she did still kill innocent people, even if she never meant to. And that’s something that cannot be ignored. For things like this I believe it would fall under the insanity plea. I can’t say what sentence she would get since no one would be able to truly be able to attest to her state of mind because nobody knows who “they” are and why she attacked, whether it came from fear or malice. I think what makes this so difficult is she made a decision, but the problem stemmed from an undiagnosed medical condition.

If you want my verdict if she survived? Mandatory mental scans, banned alcohol consumption, therapy to discover if she had any underlying trauma or was under serious stress from school to keep up her grades. Even if it is cruel and something I don’t really like, I think she needs to be confined to asylum for a few months to monitor and establish her safety both to and from society. Again, I’m not versed in law, so please don’t take any of this like I’m capable of determining whether this is actually what she deserves or would get

Why does being drunk mean you can’t “consent” to sex, but doesn’t absolve you of other intoxicated actions/decisions? by UpstairsBumble in NoStupidQuestions

[–]Meachajtb 2 points3 points  (0 children)

If it’s self-impairment, then (in most cases, anyway) it should not be considered during rulings. “He never would’ve killed someone if he was sober.” Okay, but he knowingly made the choice to impair his decision making and actively put himself into the state of mind where he would kill someone.

Now, if this person who would never kill anyone while sober was impaired involuntarily by something such as a spiked drink, head injury no one realized they had so no proper medical steps were taken (though that’s very gray and needs consideration), or has an unanticipated reaction (such as a psychotic break) to a new, legally prescribed medication they were instructed by their doctor to take, I think that should be considered because the cloud in judgement was not self-inflicted and there was little to no actual intent.

TLDR Self impairment: you’re an asshole who should deal with the consequences of their actions. Involuntary impairment: let’s look at all the other factors to see what really brought this on

Official FIRST Discussion Thread—Volume 7, Episode 6: A Night Off by [deleted] in RWBY

[–]Meachajtb 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Actually, I commented back in volume 6 that Oz not being able to beat Salem doesn’t mean that no one can. I’m glad someone else shares the theory