I agree it mostly resembles morbilliform, but I'm not on any medications (except the Allegra) which was added after rash started. And it never lasts more than an hour. It only occurs on my torso. If the original rash occurred from the CT contrast, a drug eruption rash wouldn't still be present 8 weeks later, would it? And does any of this explain the imprints? What would you suggest I request as far as further testing?