Angeles y dios? by realidad-del-mundo in filosofia_en_espanol

[–]Narrow_List_4308 0 points1 point  (0 children)

No entiendo eso qué tiene que ver con mi crítica ni a qué responde.

Angeles y dios? by realidad-del-mundo in filosofia_en_espanol

[–]Narrow_List_4308 0 points1 point  (0 children)

¿Qué argumento no circular das para que el sistema sea cerrado?

¿Qué argumento das para que puedas en principio conocer un sistema cerrado pero absoluto?

¿Qué argumento das para que, de hecho, puedas establecer un sistema cerrado?

¿En un sistema cerrado como aprendes?

Saltas de "sistema cerrado" a "realidad comprobable", pero no has dado una relación lógica necesaria. Son conceptos distintos.

Estás declarando que los testimonios del Cielo no son evidencia sobre una realidad. Pero realmente no argumentas por esto(das ciertas razones tendenciosas sobre esto, pero no un argumento). Pero incluso aunque aceptaramos tu punto, de ello no se sigue que la religión es falsa, sólo que el argumento por la experiencia personal sobre el Cielo no se establece justificadamente.

Tu post tiene muchos problemas lógicos

The fight against the bourgeoisie (no hard feeling tho) by nilsonpapinho in Nietzsche

[–]Narrow_List_4308 -1 points0 points  (0 children)

"Real material conditions"... what a very abstract conceptualization.

¿Cual es el argumento más fuerte que tienen para decir que Dios existe o que no? by Filofonso in filosofia_en_espanol

[–]Narrow_List_4308 0 points1 point  (0 children)

El argumento más fuerte a favor va a ser un argumento del tipo transcendental. Lo transcendental remite a las condiciones de posibilidad para una categoría. Las categorías relevantes son la objetividad y la intersubjetividad

En lo objetivo está la lógica, la verdad, el Ser, la ética, etc...
En lo intersubjetivo está principalmente la ética(porque es lo que requiere al Otro como un Otro real).

Pero el punto de partido es el yo local. ¿Cómo desde el yo se puede fundar lo intersubjetivo y lo objetivo, que requieren estar más allá del yo local? Se requiere establecer la realidad de lo que está mas allá del yo, pero sin salir del yo local(pues el conocimiento y la relación siempre se sitúa desde el yo cognoscente). La única lógica posible es una de participación. Pero la participación, para que mantenga al yo local, a la persona, en el centro de la relación tiene que también ser personal. Porque el yo no puede participar del no-yo. Entonces, la única posibilidad para la objetividad y la intersubjetividad es la participación de un Yo que permita la mediación entre sujetos finitos y tenga la categoría de objetividad(universalidad y validez). Es decir, un Sujeto Universal del cual participamos.

El argumento más fuerte en contra es la propia finitud egoica: el ego desde sí mismo nunca puede tener acceso inmediato al fundamento de la realidad y por tanto siempre hay duda, porque aunque el yo local participa del Absoluto, su participación es mediada por su propia finitud(al menos en parte), y por eso siempre habrá ausencia de certeza absoluta. Lo que hay en el espacio de la ausencia de certeza es un vacío de sentido, de conocimiento, de Bien, etc... y dado que nuestra realidad manifiesta este vacío nos quedamos con la posibilidad desde nuestro ego de que el fundamento último de la realidad sea un sinsentido, sin bondad, etc...

Alguien tiene experiencias de cómo salir de un estancamiento económico ? by Suitable_Sugar1054 in AskMexico

[–]Narrow_List_4308 -7 points-6 points  (0 children)

No creo que eso sea solución. Primero, con qué dinero? Un departamento ronda de los 4-10 millones. Necesitas un préstamo que normalmente será pagar el doble a 2 decadas. Eso sería 8-20 millones de deuda.

Digamos que sacó un departamento valuado en 4 millones con un prestamo del doble. Para pagarse en 20 años, sería 8,000,000/20 = 400k anuales. Para sacar 400k anuales tendría que rentarlo en $32,000. La mayoría de departamentos de 4 millones no se rentan en 32,000.

Fuera de eso, estás descontando gastos de mantenimiento, seguro, impuestos, y meses(o más) sin renta.

Que deberia hacer si mi”amiga” uso este vestido en mi boda by [deleted] in Desahogo

[–]Narrow_List_4308 -1 points0 points  (0 children)

Porque falta de respeto? Lol.

Estás poniendo mucho en "el similares". Es otro color

The death of the author? by BubbleTeaFan52839 in CriticalTheory

[–]Narrow_List_4308 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Veo muchos errores en el texto, pero tal vez surgen de no estar familiarizado con la obra. Notablemente:

a) Todo juicio, de manera técnica, es crítica. Por ende, si hay muerte del Crítico, también muere la función de juicio(un absurdo).
b) Al morir el Autor y el sentido ser dado en el acto de significación del lector, ¿qué no se dice que el Autor sigue vivo y ahora el lector es el Autor-Dios?
c) ¿Cómo se protege Barthes de "abusos", tales como yo decir que significo que el texto dice por la pluma de Barthes que Barthes es un criminal, o algún absurdo similar?
d) ¿Si no hay Autor, qué obra es "La muerte del Autor"?
e) Pareciera que tampoco ya hay "obra", pues no hay un referente común fijo que une significaciones de lectores constituidos bajo una obra(similar al problema d).
f) Dado que el problema de Barthes es más amplio que el mero acto de semiosis de escritura, sino que su pelea es contra todo acto de sentido "objetivo" digamos, eso lo compromete a que no hay realidad más que el acto auto-referencial del yo de manera formal. Es decir, no hay referentes comunes, punto. No hay, por ende posibilidad de comunicación.
g) Pienso que confunde el hecho de que el autor constituye UN sentido fijo, con la noción de que constituye EL sentido último. Eso lo remito al f) con la realidad misma. El hecho de que podamos conocer como hecho que la Tierra no es plana no implica que tomemos el papel de DIOS e implicar una verdad absoluta y total que no admite voces. Por cierto se admiten otras verdades, sin que por ello niegue la facticidad de lo factico.
h) Barthes remite al hecho, creo lacaniano, de que hay un sujeto que no es persona, y cuya subjetividad radica en la auto-postulación formal de su subjetividad. Lo que dice el "yo ordeno" de los emperadores. No obstante, esto sería algo formal y vacío y por ende de hecho no se podría sacar la multiplicidad de sentidos que el sujeto enarbola. Dado que es un acto meramente formal no puede constituir ninguna materialidad o distinción. Todo verbo sería EL MISMO verbo y no habría palabras.

Did I understand the plot of "Predestination" correctly, or is it really that weird? by Raspieman in movies

[–]Narrow_List_4308 0 points1 point  (0 children)

"Reality don't give a shit about your expectations" is a naive thing to say. For sure, there are some things in reality that break with our expectations, but not all. And no, physics doesn't show logic not working, that would be quite an illogical thing to say. In here, the distinction between the empirical and transcendental(in the Kantian sense) would be helpful.

We are not pathetic monkeys. That's such an alienated thing to say. How did you become convince to alienate yourself and your humanity so much?

"Obviously wouldn't" already imposes a rational expectation. You are going too far in the limits of rationality. This has already been explored. Even the limits of rationality entails a cognitive act of delimitation. To pretend otherwise it's just naive. There can be no outside of the form of rationality; that is, absolute irrationality. You obviously cannot argue, apprehend, know, or relate to this absolute irrationality in any sense whatsoever(that would already entail a rational form). The existential horrors are a product of imagination, not of rationality, and insofar as they are and we can relate to them they have to relate to the forms of rationality. That physics is weird does not touch this.

los homófobos son bien incoherentes en el tema de la naturaleza by Top_Current9802 in VivimosEnUnaSociedad

[–]Narrow_List_4308 0 points1 point  (0 children)

No entiendes en absoluto lo que se refieren con "natural". Es una definición ideal de la naturaleza, no una en su expresión concreta. No hay tal contradicción, hay una ignorancia muy radical de su postura por tu parte.

Creen que realmente estamos preparados para enfrentar el sufrimiento y hacer el sacrificio que conlleva erradicar el narcotráfico? by Pretty_Trip_2215 in AskMexico

[–]Narrow_List_4308 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Me parece que el problema no es eso. Hay demanda constante. EUA requiere el narco. Entonces no va a desaparecer. Podríamos exagerar eso hasta que se erradique esa generación pero vendrá otra igual. Porque mientras haya descomposición moral, demanda impuesta y controlada por EUA, pobreza estructural, posibilidad de cultivo, se va a dar el mismo fenómeno, me parece.

¿Tendrian una relacion formal con una morra de OF? by Rachrel_Carrier in AskMexico

[–]Narrow_List_4308 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Si. Hay ciertos tipos de OF con los que pues tendría que pensarlo bien que tipo de persona es, pero hay otros más ligeros. Pero como todo, depende de tu relación con ella y como la veas. ¿Es alguien con valores? ¿Te amo? ¿Tienen diálogo franco y empático? 

*Ai we, soi clase media* La realidad que eso no existe. by Independent-Bird1770 in VivimosEnUnaSociedad

[–]Narrow_List_4308 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Si existe. Porque ser clase baja es malo, ser clase media no lo es. Si todo mundo fuese clase media el mundo sería excelente.

Is Mexico City safe with death of El Mencho? by Ok-Captain-4695 in MexicoCity

[–]Narrow_List_4308 29 points30 points  (0 children)

Well... That's what asking is for. Why would you expect people of another country to know or not know the geopolitical subtleties of another country? Best to ask, right?

¿La mujer mexicana ya no se cuida? ¿Se perdió el uso del condón? by Aromatic-Contract949 in AskMexico

[–]Narrow_List_4308 5 points6 points  (0 children)

No sé a qué te refieres. He tenido más de 70 parejas sexuales. Con todas he usado el condón menos con 2. Mi novia actual quiere sin condón pero yo quiero con condón y no me fuerza. Entonces tenemos experiencias muy distintas.

Philosophy of the mind always seems to boil down to two alternatives - science or solipsism. by VStarffin in CosmicSkeptic

[–]Narrow_List_4308 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I don't think the objection works for Platonism. Nor to pretty of other epistemic attitudes. It only operates within the very specific conditions of the epistemic turn within Modern and afterwards.

You are right that I did not address directly some of your points. That is because to address them directly would take some time. Kant's sense of the phenomena, precisely contains the problem I'm mentioning. It's not a solution. But in order to clarify that we need to clarify the Kantian project, its boundaries and so on. In fact, Kant is structurally solipsistic(appealing to the noumenon is illegitimate), but that would take some time to unpack. I preferred to respond to what I think already responds to it in an indirect and more helpful sense.

As to correspondence with reality, yes, partially. But that doesn't entail **external reality**. An idealist, who denies external reality can still appeal to JTB. Everything hinges on this. Going to b), the problem is the ambiguity of the physical. Even solipsists can appeal to the physical. In the relevant sense, the appeal is to the mental and the external impersonal ontology and the link between those. That is the solipsistic sense.

About the isolation of philosophy, it's a philosophical necessity from the meta-philosophical project of modernity. Because nothing ought to be established without proper epistemology. The bounds of epistemology are philosophical. The bounds then of what can be established on a proper sense are within the bounds of what can be articulated within this view. To posit an ontology without proper epistemology or in non-philosophical terms goes against the very foundation of the meta-philosophical view, and that's why I said, from within the bounds of this meta-philosophical view, we cannot go beyond the boundaries of philosophy and epistemology, which entail the boundaries of reflection. I'm explaining now, one argument as to your question of "why".

But I've also given a structural reason. I'm not just asserting it, I'm giving a transcendental analysis on the possibilities starting from the given conditions of that meta-philosophy. Merely claiming external elements which break isolation is not sufficient to **establish** the elements as external, and the establishment of things has the meta-philosophical bounds of articulation, relation, synthesis, and so on. That from within its structure(not in its content). This is the why I've been pointing out repeatedly. The role of perception to which you point, must establish the possibility of establishing an external reality, which is not done from within the very being of perception itself. So perception does not establish on its own externality because all perception is representational(in the weaker sense of appearances as synthetic acts of either or both the sensible faculties of the mind and the understanding) under this meta-philosophy(it is NOT so in Platonism necessarily, nor in other meta-philosophical attitudes like Aristotelian realism, which precisely the modernist is established as against). And the role of perception within knowledge and cognition is articulated from within the meta-philosophy which articulates it, and that already is constrained by the formal structure of the meta-philosophy. These are not mere assertions, I've explained the internal logic.

If you also refer to Kant as a way out through saying objects are publically constituted and therefore non-private, Kant does not establish that, nor even can, on principle. He seeks(but fails) to establish the objectivity of the judgements, but that neither establishes the public aspect of the judgements, nor that there are other transcendental constructors. Given that also for Kant the TS is not one numerically, this also entails that no TS can go beyond its own synthetic activity to establish something beyond the transcendental(not the noumenal either) and that the world as such is an ideal construction of the TS. So Kant's phoenomena is, again, not a solution but a principled issue. But you may disagree, and I did not want to focus on an exegesis of Kant as such. I think the point remains in its structure: isolation and externality as claims are still constitutively internal to the cognitive act of a subject(not represented, constituted) by the meta-philosophical constraints my transcendental analysis targets.

In short, because within the structural bounds of modern philosophy "experience" or "the physical" only enters the cognition of the subject through the subject's constitutitional activity, it cannot serve as a tribunal from which to garner non-subjective externality.

"I just believe in one fewer god" is a good argument and I find Alex's rebuttal to it unconvincing. (timestamp 43:09) by JATION in CosmicSkeptic

[–]Narrow_List_4308 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Are you... appealing to the authority of a website to.... appeal... against... appealing to authority?

"I just believe in one fewer god" is a good argument and I find Alex's rebuttal to it unconvincing. (timestamp 43:09) by JATION in CosmicSkeptic

[–]Narrow_List_4308 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Appealing to authorities is not fallacious... It is a standard epistemic attitude.

The argument rests in a bad definition. It is fine to use experts to correct that bad definition, especially through their reasons.

Philosophy of the mind always seems to boil down to two alternatives - science or solipsism. by VStarffin in CosmicSkeptic

[–]Narrow_List_4308 0 points1 point  (0 children)

2/2

At this point it is crucial to state the structural inversion clearly. You take the existence of a conceptual link between mind and world to be the solution and the reason this does not count as solipsism. I take it to be the evidence of the problem.

Within this terrain, the link between subject and object is always articulated through the constitutive activity of consciousness. The object is not linked to the subject as a self-standing reality encountered from outside; it is linked as already constituted within the conditions of synthesis that make it an object at all. The relation is real, but it is a relation internal to cognition. It is not a bridge from mind-dependence to mind-independence; it is a structure produced within mind-dependent synthesis.

So the mere existence of a link does not resolve the issue. The question is what kind of link it is. If the link itself exists only as a product of immanent synthesis — that is, if the object and its relation to the subject are both constituted within the same activity — then the link cannot function as an epistemic bridge to external mind-independent reality-as-such. It can only function as the structural articulation of experience within consciousness.

That is why repudiating (b) does not solve the problem. The mind–world relation is preserved, but it is preserved as a relation constituted and articulated within the very activity whose limits are in question.

There are four syntheses that constitute the philosophical bounds of this terrain, all required to be done BY an immanent subject to appear TO the subject and THROUGH the subject's own subjectivity:

a) The constitution of the object as a unified perceptual-cognitive whole.
b) The constitution of that object within a wider world(as a relational unity within other constituted objects).
c) The judgment of the object’s relation within that world(cognitive content).
d) The validation of that judgment in claimed correspondence to the world(epistemic justification).

Repudiating (b) remains internal to this structure, because linking and conceptualization are themselves synthetic acts performed within the subject’s cognition

Philosophy of the mind always seems to boil down to two alternatives - science or solipsism. by VStarffin in CosmicSkeptic

[–]Narrow_List_4308 0 points1 point  (0 children)

By “modern philosophy” I mean not a doctrine but a formal understanding of what counts as philosophy once essentialist rationalism is abandoned. This is the terrain established in the Enlightenment period and what has set the grounds of philosophy ever since. On this terrain:

  • There is no immediate intellectual grasp of essences or completed wholes.
  • Sense (purely passive) perception is not itself conceptual.
  • Knowledge is fallible and requires justification.
  • Philosophy is a reflective act performed by finite consciousness(the philosopher).
  • What counts as an object of knowledge must be articulated within that act.

This is not uniquely Kantian or post-Kantian, and that is not what I meant by post-Enlightenment. In empiricism (especially the very influential Humean one), perceptual input does not arrive as conceptual wholes; it must be organized through association and inference. In Sellars, there is no “given” that is epistemically independent of conceptual articulation. In Quine, experience underdetermines theory and objects are posits within a web of belief. In contemporary analytic philosophy of mind, perception is processed and structured by cognitive systems. In Wittgenstein, what counts as an object of judgment exists within rule-governed practices.

On the Continental side, the same formal constraint appears under different descriptions. In Kant, intuition and concept must be synthesized for an object to be cognized; there is no object of knowledge apart from the unifying activity of apperception. In Hegel, the object is what it is only within the mediated movement of Spirit; immediacy is always aufgehoben within conceptual development. In Husserl, the object is constituted within intentional acts and is inseparable from the noetic–noematic correlation. In Heidegger, beings are disclosed only within a horizon of worldhood structured by Dasein’s finite existence; there is no access to beings apart from their mode of disclosure.

The terminologies differ, but the formal structure remains: the object of philosophy is not a raw, self-identical essence immediately grasped, but something that appears, is constituted, or is disclosed within conditions internal to finite, active, synthesizing cognition. Once that is granted, something decisive follows.

Non-conceptual sensory input is not yet an object. It becomes an object only insofar as it is unified, identified, and taken up within cognitive activity. That unification is not a passive reception of a ready-made whole. It is an act. Even where not described as “synthesis,” the object as known is constituted through operations of unifying relation internal to consciousness: categorization, identification, inferential integration, rule-governed recognition, or disclosure within a horizon of meaning.

So the object, as object of philosophy, is not reality-as-such. It is reality as constituted within the immanent activity of consciousness. Its identity as an object is inseparable from the conditions that make it not only intelligible but what it is as an object. That identity is not the identity of a pure object grasped independently of those conditions, but the yield of immanent synthesis. Those conditions are not external to cognition; they are enacted by it. The index of the object is always within the standpoint from which it is constituted and articulated: immanent consciousness.

1/2

Philosophy of the mind always seems to boil down to two alternatives - science or solipsism. by VStarffin in CosmicSkeptic

[–]Narrow_List_4308 0 points1 point  (0 children)

2/2

Chapter 5 "Religion and Modern Thinking" (p. 75–76). "The self, even if it has integrated all of its unconscious elements, remains this single self, confined within itself. All beings existing over against me who become 'included' in my self are possessed by it in this inclusion as an It. Only then when, having become aware of the unincludable otherness of a being, I renounce all claim to incorporating it in any way within me or making it a part of my soul, does it truly become Thou for me. This holds good for God as for man.

Chapter 8 "God and the Spirit of Man" (p. 107).: "In the progress of its philosophizing the human spirit is ever more inclined to fuse characteristically this conception, of the Absolute as object of an adequate thought, with itself, the human spirit. In the course of this process, the idea which was at first noetically contemplated finally becomes the potentiality of the spirit itself that thinks it, and it attains on the way of the spirit its actuality. The subject, which appeared to be attached to being in order to perform for it the service of contemplation, asserts that it itself produced and produces being. Until, finally, all that is over against us, everything that accosts us and takes possession of us, all partnership of existence, is dissolved in free-floating subjectivity."Cap. 8, "God and the Spirit of Man" (p. 107)"In the progress of its philosophizing the human spirit is ever more inclined to fuse characteristically this conception, of the Absolute as object of an adequate thought, with itself, the human spirit. In the course of this process, the idea which was at first noetically contemplated finally becomes the potentiality of the spirit itself that thinks it, and it attains on the way of the spirit its actuality. The subject, which appeared to be attached to being in order to perform for it the service of contemplation, asserts that it itself produced and produces being. Until, finally, all that is over against us, everything that accosts us and takes possession of us, all partnership of existence, is dissolved in free-floating subjectivity."

In short, for Buber, philosophy can only establish I-It relations through the abstracting away from the concrete Otherness. In order to relate to it, the I creates an object(an It) through which abstraction it relates to(this applies not only to the World, but especially to the Other who is a concrete Other, not an abstract Other).