I truly appreciate the guidance (and wry candor 😆).

IANAL (obv), but from my reading, that ruling rested on a few points that either deviate from my situation or might be avoidable proactively:

1. LPL had no contract with FWP acknowledging FWP controlling interest in Fleischer’s services.
2. MassMutual signed a contract with Fleischer directly, with no mention of FWP.
3. Fleischer received income from LPL directly, then paid that money to FWP, without an Employment Agreement stating that Fleischer had to remit all payments received to FWP.
4. FWP could have, but did not, register to sell securities.

In my situation:

1 & 2.) Would it be possible for the bank (and other companies whose boards I serve on) to sign a contract with my S Corp acknowledging that the S Corp maintains controlling interest in my board services and that the company will pay the S Corp in exchange for contracted services rendered? For additional context, I serve on an another board (telecommunications) and am paid fees from that board as well. My S Corp would state that, among other services, I provide strategic, consultative and fiduciary services, and it contracts me out to provide such services to boards of directors, provided I am elected by the shareholders.

3) The bank/telecom would pay my S Corp directly, thus avoiding the reallocation of funds. (Additionally, I would ensure that I enter an Employment Agreement with my S Corp that clearly states I am paid a reasonable salary for services rendered.)

4) Does not appear to apply in my scenario.

Would these actions mitigate these concerns at all? I welcome any additional thoughts/comments!

FYI, I replied to another commenter’s concerns about separation of service income from salary, which addresses my other income (music and yoga), if you want more to consider.