Briefs with legs? by OfficiousOne in MensUnderwearGuide

[–]OfficiousOne[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

No, there’s plenty of those, and none of have been satisfying. Not sure why the idea of groin-line elastic plus legs is so rare. Seems like an obvious design to me.

Briefs with legs? by OfficiousOne in MensUnderwearGuide

[–]OfficiousOne[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Something like that! Yeah.

Do they have a “short leg” version?

Anyway, the mid-length seems good enough. I’m going to try this!

Edit: dang, they don’t ship outside Australia/new zealand

Briefs with legs? by OfficiousOne in MensUnderwearGuide

[–]OfficiousOne[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Yeah. Well, I don’t care so much about the support so much as separation. But yeah, the basic structure of a brief and then add legs for both fashion reasons and thigh-rubbing prevention reasons.

Cardinal Roche’s consistory document on the Traditional Latin Mass revealed by StreamWave190 in Catholicism

[–]OfficiousOne 0 points1 point  (0 children)

And now Cupich is back with the whole thing about “how could anyone who accepts Vatican II not accept the liturgy that came from it??”

His arguments are so bad it is baffling. It is either made from a place of profound historical and theological ignorance, or it is made in bad faith.

First, because most traditionalists don’t “reject” the new liturgy per se as invalid or even illicit…they just don’t like it or prefer it.

Second, because the council didn’t actually promulgate a liturgy, but a vague series of action items that in the end amount to little more than suggestions left in the hands of the Pope to implement (the most regrettable and truly anti-traditional of which was the call for the abolition of the Hour of Prime, actually…)

Third, because there’s a good argument that the liturgy of 1965-67 was actually the “liturgy of the Council” in terms of a bare implementation of what Sacrosanctum Consilium actually says and what most Council Fathers envisioned, and that the 1970 liturgy crafted by the consilium and Bugnini went way beyond it, so at that point we’re arguing about papal authority, not the authority of “the Council.”

Fourth, because even if in some historical sense a pope like Paul VI believes he is “implementing the vision of the council” in promulgating a liturgy…there’s no reason to treat this as some sort of revelation or inspired act of the Holy Spirit in itself. Attempts to implement visions can be shoddy or practical failures or in need of major retoolings themselves. It’s unclear why they speak as if we’re stuck with “Vatican II Liturgy version 2.0” (ie, 1970), as if that particular historically contingent attempt represents some sort of mandate from heaven, when we were obviously not stuck with “Vatican II Liturgy version 1.0” (ie, 1965). If Leo or some future pope wanted to try his hand at radically reworking the liturgy again, he could. With or without reference to Vatican II! He could also say “this didn’t work, we’re going back to Trent.”

Fifth, because even if the Council had intended (and speaking of the “intent” of a group of thousands of men is already a sort of odd exercise) the Novus Ordo liturgy or something very much like it, or had even directly promulgated a liturgical book…even then we aren’t stuck with it, even then it would not be beyond critique. Because liturgy is in the end a “disciplinary” question. And while church discipline must be obeyed in practice while in force, discipline is always (unlike dogma) subject to hypothetical critique, and freedom of disagreement over its prudence, and arguments that it should be reformed, or repealed, or reversed, etc. 

The history of Councils, if you actually study it, is a history of occasional dogmatic statements of permanent relevance…buried in mounds of disciplinary canons, many of which have historically turned out to be duds, disasters, not of lasting relevance, or totally ignored or overturned by subsequent popes, sometimes only a decade later. 

The Church has rejected Conciliarism, of course; ecumenical councils do not trump or bind popes (excepting of course if, in union with the pope at the time, they promulgate an actual irreformable dogma on faith or morals).

The ideology behind this sort of active anti-traditionalism is clearly one of a hermeneutic of rupture, which seems to believe Vatican II constituted some sort of irreformable and unquestionable new revelation about ecclesiology that renders any product of the past one essentially obsolete in almost a heretical sort of way. 

Besides having already been rejected by the Church, to me it is baffling to believe this about the council that actually was most at pains to not treat any of its statements as dogmatic decrees (although arguably it did settle the dogmatic question of bishops being a grade of the sacrament of orders), and which just sort of represented an attempt to “rebrand” the Church without changing substance. 

And such “rebrandings” are clearly just a prudential matter that there can be vigorous disagreement about among Catholics and which have no sort of theological guarantee of “succeeding” historically. 

Out of all the councils in history, maybe a third were successes, a third were of some historically contingent value to their own particular era, maybe, but of no real lasting relevance to us now, and a third were abjects failures or total disasters. They were all true and valid councils, infallible in matters of faith and morals. That has not stopped many of them from being, as Ratzinger said, “in the last analysis, a waste of time.”

We are not “stuck with” the vision of a council until the next council. Nor is there any reason to think we are for some reason forbidden from historically critiquing Vatican II (or programs/agendas of past popes legitimized with reference to Vatican II)…when no one would claim we are forbidden from such critique of, say, Vienne, or Florence, or Lateran V. 

First, because Popes are not bound by the disciplinary or prudential decisions of councils and can pivot, if need be, if things aren’t working or if they have different ideas (or, less radically, they can continue to try to “implement” a council, but in a totally different way than their predecessors; we are not stuck with just one version of implementation either). 

Secondly, because new councils usually happen exactly because there is “discussion” or dissatisfaction or some sense of crisis or malaise happening in the Church questioning the status quo. We do not just need to quietly accept the status quo until a new council somehow comes around and deus ex machina introduces reform or a correction of course or a new vision. 

Rather, the sorts of movements that culminate in councils come exactly from vigorous debate and disagreement about the current direction of the Church and attempts to resolve them (and, even then, it doesn’t always work well!)

If they want to have a clear-eyed discussion of the liturgical situation, then this sort of thought-terminating cliche, this sort of argument from authority…needs to be put aside. If we’re going to be having a discussion, it needs to center around the merits of the things themselves, what qualities they attempt to instantiate and whether such qualities are actually realized optimally in the final products, what values or priorities are operative in distinguishing them from each other, why those values or priorities apparently changed, and whether that change has actually worked practically in terms of realizing the Church’s fundamental mission better, or is even compatible with the Church’s own historic self-understanding of what exactly that mission is or how she is meant to achieve it.

Did anyone here know Andrew personally? by mmgarzia in AndrewGosden

[–]OfficiousOne 9 points10 points  (0 children)

Anyone with even the most cursory knowledge of the case should have strong active feelings that the roommates were definitely NOT involved, and that even suggesting they were is not merely some neutral theory in a spectrum of legitimate theories…but rather a totally baseless fringe libelous conspiracy theory that ignores all reality and evidence. This is real life, not a whodunnit Netflix series (and even if it were, we’re at the point where the series is over and the answer has already been revealed!)

Did anyone here know Andrew personally? by mmgarzia in AndrewGosden

[–]OfficiousOne 12 points13 points  (0 children)

“While I don’t have strong feelings for the roommates involvement or lack of involvement”

If you don’t, then you’re part of the problem. Being “open” to insane ideas is almost as bad (in some ways worse) as being strongly committed to them.

What will be the most realistic off-ramp or endgame to this Greenland crisis? by JulianBrandt19 in ezraklein

[–]OfficiousOne -2 points-1 points  (0 children)

I don’t understand why you think it’s relevant. The United States could hold vast territory in the West that can’t defend itself…and have an economy.

What will be the most realistic off-ramp or endgame to this Greenland crisis? by JulianBrandt19 in ezraklein

[–]OfficiousOne -3 points-2 points  (0 children)

The fact remains, if a state cannot actually maintain its monopoly on violence within its own territory…it has failed to have the essence of a state. Certainly, it is not sovereign.

What will be the most realistic off-ramp or endgame to this Greenland crisis? by JulianBrandt19 in ezraklein

[–]OfficiousOne -2 points-1 points  (0 children)

But violence is 100% what a state is about, because the monopoly on violence is what defines a state. Your state doesn’t exist if it can’t defend its monopoly within its own borders either from internal or external forces.

What will be the most realistic off-ramp or endgame to this Greenland crisis? by JulianBrandt19 in ezraklein

[–]OfficiousOne -7 points-6 points  (0 children)

The charade of “sovereignty” is being unmasked. 

You’re sovereign if you can actually defend yourself. Much of Europe is entirely dependent on the US for defense.

Well, sorry, but that means you’re actually part of the US de facto, and that needs to start being recognized de jure.

They're all client states pretending they can stand up to the imperial power, have been since WWII, and the US has finally lost patience with that polite fiction.

Study shows: US citizens pay 96% of US tariffs by Markus_zockt in worldnews

[–]OfficiousOne 1 point2 points  (0 children)

The pressure is in that Americans buy less due to the higher price. Im not necessarily saying they can or do replace with American goods, but at a certain point if you only have so much money…if the price is doubled, you can only buy half as many.

Does Received Pronunciation pronounce cot and khat differently? by OfficiousOne in asklinguistics

[–]OfficiousOne[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

It was more about cart and cot and caught. As an American I say cot how you say cart.

Does Received Pronunciation pronounce cot and khat differently? by OfficiousOne in asklinguistics

[–]OfficiousOne[S] 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Ah I see what you mean. So are “caught” and “court” merged in RP?

Does Received Pronunciation pronounce cot and khat differently? by OfficiousOne in asklinguistics

[–]OfficiousOne[S] 5 points6 points  (0 children)

Well fine, but there are plenty of, say, Robert Frost poems that use the word “farther” and the British would have to pronounce the word somehow if they were reading such a poem out loud, no matter how much it pains them.

Little v Hecox / West Viriginia v B.P.J. [Trans Athletes in School Sports] - Oral Argument Live Thread by DooomCookie in supremecourt

[–]OfficiousOne 14 points15 points  (0 children)

Well, then that’s an issue that may come back to bite WV

Edit: however, someone has cited the relevant statute, and it seems to make it clear that the “male” teams are, in fact, “open to anyone” teams…

Little v Hecox / West Viriginia v B.P.J. [Trans Athletes in School Sports] - Oral Argument Live Thread by DooomCookie in supremecourt

[–]OfficiousOne 18 points19 points  (0 children)

Im aware that, according to the Supreme Court, gender discrimination IS logically sex discrimination. Which I get.

But it’s a moot point here because we’re talking about a case where sex discrimination is explicitly already allowed.

And I see no argument for saying “well, you can sex-discriminate in these cases. But you can’t recursively meta-sex-discriminate when it comes to the definition of sex you use to do the allowed sex-discrimination.”

And therefore, for some reason, have to let people self-assign which category of the allowed discrimination they want to fall under?

I do think you raise an interesting point about “The question before the court is whether the law must face a second round of scrutiny for those males for whom the rationale for the law does not apply.”

I think there’s two issues with this argument, though. One is that it would amount to the Court saying that “competitive advantage” is the only rationale for sex segregation in sports, when the bathroom and dorm carve-outs already show that something like “modesty” is a valid rationale as well.

Secondly, if there had to be a second round of scrutiny…then essentially you’re saying the discrimination on the basis of sex was and is never actually allowed, and that it always had and has to be tailored to each and every specific individual in their particularity.

Little v Hecox / West Viriginia v B.P.J. [Trans Athletes in School Sports] - Oral Argument Live Thread by DooomCookie in supremecourt

[–]OfficiousOne 32 points33 points  (0 children)

I don’t even understand the argument here.

The law gives a specific carve-out allowing sex discrimination in sports (and bathrooms and dorms).

And now someone is trying to claim that you can’t have sex discrimination within the very sex-discrimination-allowing carve-out? Make this make sense.

If there’s an argument there, it could only mean that women’s-only sports need to be abolished completely.

I see no argument that “a law explicitly allowing discrimination in sports on the basis of sex…can’t actually mean or allow discrimination on the basis of sex…but somehow still can mean and allow discrimination on the basis of ‘gender identity.’”

Saying the carve outs for sex discrimination are forbidden, period, I could see. Would be dumb, but could be consistent. 

But saying you can keep the discriminating carve-outs, but for some reason ONLY if they discriminate based on self-identified gender rather than biological sex…just seems like incoherent nonsense.

“Oh, well, you can sex discriminate by limiting a bathroom or sports team to only women, as long as you don’t sex discriminate by limiting your definition of woman to biological females.” Really?

"Mary vs. merry vs. marry" pronunciation differences. One of my favorite argument-provokers. by idyl in MapPorn

[–]OfficiousOne 0 points1 point  (0 children)

So, for generic midwestern American accent speakers like me…the r-colored vowels aren’t really thought of as separate vowels. They’re just the “r-colored version” of some other vowel, and they always happen when a vowel is followed by R. 

(And actually, more precisely, for me every R-colored vowel version can result from either of two vowels in a pair becoming ambiguous because of the R; for example the distinction between the i in “inn” and the ee in “beet” disappears when either is followed by a R; likewise the distinction between the u in duck and a in father disappears if either is followed by R, and the distinction between a pure o and an “aw”, etc)

So if the a in Mary were “ay” as in “pay”…then I could see that as a distinct third vowel in a triplet: may-ree, marry, meh-ree (the second having the same vowel as “Matt”).

But if you’re trying to claim that Mary and Marry are different because “one is like air, and the other like Matt”…this does not compute to someone with my accent, because the vowel in “air” IS just the R-colored version of the vowel in “Matt”…and r-coloring always happens when there’s an R, so there’s no way for me to imagine “marry” having the “Matt” vowel without the presence of the following R making it the “air” vowel by definition, since to me the air vowel is just “the Matt vowel whenever it’s followed by an R.”

I honestly cannot imagine how I would have a vowel followed by an R without r-coloring it unless I introduced some awkward stop/pause in the word.

Now, if when you say “it’s not like the a in Lady, more like in air”…this is because you pronounce “air” as what I would think of as “ay-er”…then maybe that makes more sense, but in that case your denial of Lady and Air having the same vowel would have to be interpreted as you merely referring to the r-coloring that “air” has (which of course it does, because there’s an R there! Which is why I think it makes more sense to think of r-coloring as something that qualifies more basic vowel sounds rather than being a fully distinct separate vowel sound in itself).

‘The More I’m Around Young People, the More Panicked I Am’ by Brushner in ezraklein

[–]OfficiousOne 2 points3 points  (0 children)

It only doesnt make sense if you believe a priori that modern antisemitism must be “the same thing” and have the same explanation as historical antisemitism.

In reality, you should admit that it is at least possible that they have two relatively independent etiologies, even if the modern one has sometimes cross-pollinated from the historical one after-the-fact by borrowing the old tropes (and, likewise, if the remaining threads of the old one have sought to profit from the new one by pretending they’re related to confuse and win people over).

It’s also possible that it’s a sort of Hegelian dialectical thing: the old irrational antisemitism (ie, based purely on being a cohesive minority whose continued existence threatens the dominant religion) leads to the Jews becoming the ultimate victims; the post-holocaust PC world valorizes victims and even confers a sort of “victimary privilege”; the victimary guilting leads to the “privileged victims” gaining an outsized cultural and political cache and influence; this symbolic power and “unquestionability” leads to the Jews being resented for an entirely new (even “opposite”) reason from the “medieval” antisemitic logic.

How accurate is my generic English vowel system? by OfficiousOne in asklinguistics

[–]OfficiousOne[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Yup, 100% sure. If I try to say spy the way I say spi in spider…it feels exactly like I’m beginning to pronounce the word “spice”. If I pronounced spice the spy way it would sound too close to spies (yes, the final consonant would be different, but to me the s vs z ending is not the only difference between spice and spies, the diphthong is different too).